[2017 New] Latest Cisco 642-053 Exam Practice Materials Online Free Download

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QUESTION 1
What are the two modes of operation for the EZ VPN Remote? (Choose two.)
A.Client mode with NAT/PAT
B.Client mode without NAT/PAT
C.Network Extension mode with PAT
D.Network Extension mode without PAT
Correct Answer:AD

642-053

 

QUESTION 2
Which parameter will be used to determine when to 642-053 disconnect an idle established DDR call, when the line is needed to place a DDR call to a different destination?
A.The time specified by dialer idle-timeout.
B.The time specified by dialer fast-idle.
C.The value configured by dialer load-threshold.
D.The presence of interesting traffic designated for a different destination will force an immediate disconnect.
Correct Answer:B

QUESTION 3
Which three protocols can be used by the NAC solution to implement its functions? (Choose three.)
A.IKE
B.802.1x
C.RSA
D.EAP
E.RADIUS
F.WEP
Correct:BDE

QUESTION 4
Which two features can SDM 2.0 configure? (Choose two.)
A.resource monitoring
B.PIM
C.QoS
D.SRST
E.MPLS VPNs
Correct Answer:AC

QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the dialer-list command when configuring a router to 642-053 initiate a dial-on-demand routing ISDN call?
A.It defines call destination parameters.
B.It defines what constitutes interesting traffic.
C.It provides for optional call parameters.
D.It assigns a dialer-group to an interface.
Correct Answer:B

QUESTION 6
Cisco’s Long Reach Ethernet (LRE) is based on Ethernet over which type of DSL service?
A.ADSL
B.IDSL
C.HDSL
D.VDSL
Correct:D

QUESTION 7
Which T1 controller command is used to 642-053 configure the controller for ISDN PRI operation?
A.framing
B.linecode
C.pri-group
D.isdn switch-type
Correct Answer:C

642-053

QUESTION 8
Which QoS technique avoids the problems that occur when tail drop is used as the congestion avoidance mechanism on the router?
A.RSVP
B.WRED
C.CAR
D.CBWFQ
Correct Answer:B

QUESTION 9
13.You have used CRWS to set up an auto EZ VPN connection using Client mode with PAT. Which statement is true about the connection?
A.The connection uses the IP address of the outside interface to base the PAT address on and uses all other physical interface configurations.
B.The connection ignores the physical outside address and uses addresses from the server for the both the inside and the outside addresses.
C.The connection uses the IP address of the outside interface to base the PAT address on and usesserver-supplied addresses for the inside interface and workstations.
D.The connection ignores the outside IP address and uses one supplied by the server, while the inside addresses are used from the physical DHCP configuration of the client router.
Correct Answer:D

QUESTION 10
What is the 642-053 purpose of a CSU/DSU in a leased T1 WAN configuration?
A.It provides encryption and compression for the security of transmitted data.
B.It multiplexes individual 64K channels into a single circuit.
C.It channelizes the leased T1 line into multiple 64K circuits.
D.It provides signal timing for communications and interfaces to the digital transmission facility.
E.It converts the analog T1 signals into digital signals for the router interface.
Correct Answer:D

QUESTION 11
Which statement is true about the STP Path Cost on a particular port?
A.It is known only to the local switch where the port resides.
B.It can be modified to help determine Root Bridge selection.
C.Modifying it can cause TCN BPDU to be sent to the Root Bridge.
D.When increased, it can provide higher bandwidth to a connecting port.
Correct Answer:A

QUESTION 12
Which two commands assign multiple ISDN BRI interfaces to a single hunt group? (Choose two.)
A.dialer-group
B.multilink ppp
C.interface dialer
D.dialer hunt-group
E.dialer rotary-group
Correct Answer:CE

QUESTION 13
LCP is responsible for the negotiation of which function?
A.IP address
B.modulo size
C.error correction
D.frequency on the link
Correct Answer:C

QUESTION 14
Which type of IGMP message is sent when a network client wants to 642-053 join a multicast group?
A.host membership query
B.host membership report
C.host membership status
D.host membership notification
Correct Answer:B

QUESTION 15
Which Catalyst switch has modules tailored for VoIP?
A.2950
B.3550
C.4000
D.6500
Correct:D

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[2017 New] Latest Cisco 642-052 Dumps Exam Practice Materials Online Free Download

Cisco 642-052 dumps exam practice materials are written according to the latest real IT exams. All the questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. http://www.passitdump.com/642-052.html 100% success and guarantee to pass Cisco 642-052 exam easily.

QUESTION 1
Which QoS technique avoids the problems that occur when tail drop is used as the congestion avoidance mechanism on the router?
A.RSVP
B.WRED
C.CAR
D.CBWFQ
Correct:B

QUESTION 2
Drag Drop question

Correct:
Green choice4—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice5—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice5

QUESTION 3
Which command displays the 642-052 number of successful and failed calls?
A.show dialer
B.show interface
C.show isdn q931
D.show isdn active call
Correct:A

QUESTION 4
Which technology allows a service provider to support overlapping customer VLAN IDs over transparent LAN services?
A.802.1q tunneling
B.ATM
C.SDH
D.IP+Optical
Correct:A

QUESTION 5
Which implementation of SPAN is designed to 642-052 support source ports, source VLANs, and destination ports across different switches?
A.RVSPAN
B.MSPAN
C.VSPAN
D.RSPAN
Correct:D

QUESTION 6
Given the configuration:access-list 101 permit ip any anyaccess-list 101 deny tcp any any eq ftpdialer-list 2 protocol ip list 101Which two statements about the configuration are true with respect to FTP traffic and DDR? (Choose two.)
A.FTP traffic will be forwarded.
B.FTP traffic will not be forwarded.
C.FTP will cause the line to come up.
D.Since FTP uses two sockets, both must be defined to prevent packet forwarding.
Correct:A C

QUESTION 7
Which three statements are correct with regard to the 642-052 IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three.)
A.the packet is encapsulated with a 26 byte header and a 4 byte FCS
B.the IEEE 802.1Q frame format adds a 4 byte field to a Ethernet frame
C.the IEEE 802.1Q frame retains the original MAC destination address
D.the IEEE 802.1Q frame uses multicast destination of 0x01-00-0c-00-00
E.protocol uses point-to-point connectivity
F.protocol uses point-to-multipoint connectivity
Correct:B C E

QUESTION 8
From the figure, which frame-relay map command would configure a static address mapping from the central site to the branch site?
642-052
A.frame-relay map ip 10.10.12.2 328 broadcast ietf
B.frame-relay map ip 10.10.12.2 200 broadcast cisco
C.frame-relay map ip 10.10.12.1 200 broadcast cisco
D.frame-relay map ip 10.10.12.1 328 broadcast ietf
Correct:B

QUESTION 9
What feature of the EZ VPN Remote makes it desirable to 642-052 have Proxy DNS server support forthe PCs attached to the VPN?
A.Client mode with connect auto
B.Client mode with connect manual
C.Network Extension mode with connect auto
D.Network Extension mode with connect manual
Correct:B

QUESTION 10
What is a primary difference between PPPoA and either PPPoE or RFC 1483 Bridge encapsulation methods?
A.PPPoA requires host-based client software to provide connectivity and authentication.
B.PPPoA does not support session authentication with the aggregation router.
C.PPPoA is routed end-to-end from the user’s PC (or local router) over ATM to the aggregation router.
D.PPPoA provides simple bridged connections for an unlimited amount of hosts.
Correct:C

QUESTION 11
Which command verifies Frame Relay traffic-shaping parameters?
A.show frame-relay pvc
B.show frame-relay status
C.show frame-relay interface
D.show frame-relay map-class
Correct:A

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[2017 New] Latest Cisco 642-035 Exam Practice Materials Online Free Download

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QUESTION 1
A customer is configuring an upstream disjoint Layer 2 network in a Cisco 642-035 UCS domain. So far they have configured the following:
Fabric Interconnects are in switching mode.
There is symmetrical configuration for high availability.
There are no overlapping VLANs.
Each vNIC is communicating with one disjoint Layer 2 network.
After validating the above, the customer is still having issues with network connectivity.
What is the issue?
A. Overlapping VLANs are allowed in a disjoint Layer 2 network.
B. The vNIC configuration is incorrect and must communicate with two or more disjoint layer 2 networks.
C. The fabric interconnect must be in end-host mode for a disjoint Layer 2 network.
D. Asymmetrical configuration for high availability needs to be configured.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which command was executed on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect in NX-OS mode to produce this output?
642-035
A. show flogi database
B. show npv flogi-table
C. show flogi
D. show npv flogi-database
E. show fcns database
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
The Core File Exporter automatically exports cores to 642-035 a remote server as they are generated. Which protocol does it use for this action?
A. FTP
B. SCP
C. SFTP
D. TFTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
How does the FSM react after an error or timeout at a stage?
A. stops
B. retries until successful
C. continues
D. retries that stage at scheduled intervals
E. raises faults and continues
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You attempt to boot a supported Linux operating system live image from the eUSB in a Cisco 642-035 UCS blade- server environment, but the boot fails. Which option is the most likely cause of the failure?
A. In the Service Profile, a device other than the eUSB is set first in the boot order for the server.
B. The eUSB license is unavailable or the grace period of the license is expired.
C. The blade servers are unable to boot from the eUSB. The eUSB is used only for virtual machines.
D. Access to the eUSB is disabled for that blade server by Power Manager.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You are installing Microsoft Windows Server 2008 R2 on a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server, and the installer does not see local storage on the LSI MegaRAID SAS 9260-4i controller that is installed. Which statement explains the issue?
A. The driver is not included in the installer DVD. Press F6 to load the LSI RAID driver from CD or virtual media.
B. The virtual disk is not created and online.
C. The LSI 9260-4i is only supported by Red Hat Enterprise Linux and VMware vSphere 4.0 and later.
D. The installer DVD for Microsoft Windows Server 2008 R2 did not include the LSI driver until SP2.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which statement about Cisco 642-035 UCS version compatibility is true?
A. All bundles (A, B, and C) must be the same version.
B. The B and C bundles must be the same revision.
C. The A bundle can be one revision higher than the B/C bundles.
D. The B/C bundles can be one revision higher than the A bundles.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You have blade servers that run VMware ESXi. Which two tasks do you perform to ensure that all of the components in the Cisco 642-035 UCS environment use jumbo
frames? (Choose two.)
A. Use a QoS policy for the jumbo frames.
B. Configure the MTU on the vSwitch.
C. Configure the fabric interconnect to support 9500-byte frames.
D. Configure the MTU on the vNIC.
E. Configure a QoS policy on the vSwitch.
Correct Answer: AB

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[2017 New] Latest Cisco 640-916 Dumps Exam Practice Materials Online Free Download

Cisco 640-916 dumps exam Data Center is omnipresent all around the world, and the business and software solutions provided by them are being embraced by almost all the companies. They have helped in driving thousands of Cisco 640-916 dumps exam companies on the sure-shot path of success. http://www.passitdump.com/640-916.html Comprehensive knowledge of Cisco CCNA Data Center products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations.

QUESTION 1
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco 640-916 Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. VDC mode
D. Default interface layer
E. Default interface state
F. CoPP
Correct Answer: DE
640-916
QUESTION 2
Which three are required components of a Cisco Nexus 1000V deployment? (Choose three.)
A. Adapter FEX
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Fibre Channel Module
D. Virtual Supervisor Module
E. License key
F. VM-Fex
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 3
The marketing, research, and business departments of a company each have servers and storage in the SAN fabric connected to a Cisco MDS switch. The storage engineer is asked to 640-916 ensure that each department’s servers and storage are isolated from the other departments. Which two steps can the engineer take to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Create VSAN 10, 11, and 12 on the MDS switch.
B. Add marketing devices to VSAN 10, research to VSAN 11, and business to VSAN 12.
C. Create VSAN 10 on the MDS switch.
D. Add marketing, research, and business devices to VSAN 10.
E. Create VSAN 10 and VSAN 11.
F. Add all storage devices to VSAN 10. Add all server devices to VSAN 11.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which two options are two functions of the data center core layer? (Choose two.)
A. manages access control and policy
B. enables routing between VLANs
C. creates separate collision domains
D. acts as a high speed egress point
E. implements security policy
F. provides a resilient Layer 3 routed fabric
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring a server for storage connectivity using a Cisco 640-916 MDS switch. The engineer connects the server to the switch, powers up the server, and then wants to verify that the server haslogged into the fabric. Which command does the engineer use to verify fabric login?
A. show flogi database
B. show vsan database
C. show interface
D. show zoneset active
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which five Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VMware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose five.)
A. private VLANs
B. port state migration
C. access control lists
D. port security
E. SPAN
F. ERSPAN
G. QoS marking
Correct Answer: CDEFG

QUESTION 7
Which interface provides heartbeat messages between the VSM and VEM?
A. control
B. management
C. packet
D. backplane
E. SVI
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the Destination VIF field in the VNTag header?
A. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
B. identify the virtual satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
C. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch
D. identify the fabric port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A network engineer needs to 640-916 add four native Fibre Channel ports to a pair of UCS fabric interconnects.
What two items would be the result of the engineer configuring four universal ports in the fabric interconnect expansion card for storage mode and selecting apply? (Choose two.)
A. The fabric interconnect port module reboots.
B. The fabric interconnect reboots.
C. The ports immediately transition to storage ports.
D. The ports are reconfigured as Fibre Channel storage ports.
E. The ports are reconfigured as Fibre Channel host adapter ports.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
Which two are valid block-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2248TP
B. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-E
C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232TM
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
Which two differentiate the Cisco Nexus 2148T and Cisco 640-916 Nexus 2248T Fabric Extenders? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
B. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
C. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports FCoE on all 48 host ports.
D. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
E. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
Correct Answer: AE

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[2017 New] Latest Cisco 640-911 Exam Practice Materials Online Free Download

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QUESTION 1
In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the Cisco 640-911 exam significance of the DSAP field?
A. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol.
B. The DSAP field is only used on United States Department of Defense networks to indicate the information classification level.
C. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames.
D. The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol.
Correct Answer: D
640-911
QUESTION 2
Which field in an Ethernet II frame performs the Cisco 640-911 dumps same function as the DSAP field in an 802.3 Ethernet frame?
A. Start of frame
B. EtherType
C. Frame check sequence
D. Subnetwork Access Protocol
E. Logical Link Control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. Reliable transmission
B. Operate at OSI Layer 2
C. Operate at OSI Layer 3
D. Create multiple broadcast domains
E. Create multiple collision domains
F. Flood input packets to all ports
G. Drop IP packets with invalid destination ports
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 5
What action does a switch take if the Cisco 640-911 destination MAC address is unknown?
A. Discard frame
B. Send ICMP unreachable message to source
C. Flood packet on all ports
D. Compare destination IP address against an ACL to determine if it is permitted
E. Send gratuitous ARP on all ports and wait for reply before forwarding
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement describes the purpose of the MAC address forwarding table of a switch?
A. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the best route to a destination.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.
C. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if the packet is routable.
D. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if access control permits the packet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco 640-911 vce Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BCDF
640-911
QUESTION 9
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which VTP mode disallows the 640-911 pdf creation of local VLANs?
A. transparent
B. tunneling
C. server
D. client
E. off
F. native
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which three statements are true concerning RFC 1918 IP addresses? (Choose three.)
A. They are globally routable.
B. They are not globally routable.
C. They must not be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
D. They should be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
E. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/16, and 192.168.1.0/24.
F. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 12
Which two statements describe the purpose of RFC 1918? (Choose two.)
A. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of multicast video.
B. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of peer-to-peer file- sharing applications.
C. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to use on internal networks.
D. Establish a range of IP addresses to address the shrinking pool of globally routable addresses.
E. Delay the transition to IPv6.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13
What are three reasons to 640-911 migrate from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT.
B. IPv6 includes enough IP addresses to allocate more than four billion IP addresses to every person on earth.
C. IPv6 eliminates the need for VLANs.
D. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DHCP.
E. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DNS.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 14
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Which two options describe services that are provided by UDP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. segmentation
C. connection-oriented
D. reliable packet delivery
E. best-effort packet delivery
Correct Answer: AE

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