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High Quality Cisco CCNA SP 640-875 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag the IPv4 leading address bits on the left and drop them on the correct type of IPv4 addresses on the right. Not all options on the left are used.
Select and Place:
640-875 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-875 dumps
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Drag the methods from the left and drop them on the best descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:
640-875 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-875 dumps
QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Drag the IPv6 address type from the left and drop it on the matching description on the right. Not all IPv6 address types are used.
Select and Place:
640-875 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-875 dumps
QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit.
640-875 dumps
Drag the ports on the left and drop them on the correct port type on the right. Not all of the left options are needed.
Select and Place:
640-875 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-875 dumps
QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Drag the features from the left and drop them on the matching descriptions on the right. 640-875 dumps Not all features on the left are used.
Select and Place:
640-875 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-875 dumps
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Drag the routing protocols from the left and drop them on the correct categories on the right.
Select and Place:
640-875 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-875 dumps
QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag the DNS record types from the left and drop them on the correct descriptions on the right. Not all record types on the left are used.
Select and Place:
640-875 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-875 dumps
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag the Cisco IOS XR command mode from the left and drop it on the correct prompt on the right.
Select and Place:
640-875 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-875 dumps
QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
Drag each Cisco IOS XR command from the left and drop it on the correct output description on the right.
Select and Place:
640-875 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-875 dumps
QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Drag the each Cisco IOS XR command from the left and drop it on the correct output description on the right.
Select and Place:
640-875 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-875 dumps
QUESTION 11
Which is a valid IPv6 Link Local address?
A. FF00::1
B. 224.0.0.5::1
C. FE80::1
D. FE70::1
E. 169.254.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What is the size difference in bits between an IPv4 address and an IPv6 address?
A. 128
B. 100
C. 98
D. 96
E. 32
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Given the subnet of 209.165.201.0/27, which subnet range will make the most efficient use of the address block for connecting to customer edge devices?
A. 209.165.201.1/32
B. 209.165.201.1/31
C. 209.165.201.1/30
D. 209.165.201.1/29
E. 209.165.201.1/24
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Given a ring topology, which loop prevention mechanism provides the fastest reconvergence time after a link failure?
A. Rapid Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Resilient Ethernet Protocol
C. Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Spanning Tree Protocol
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which three of the following components must be elected before the Spanning Tree Protocol can converge in a switched LAN? (Choose three.)
A. Designated ports
B. Alternate ports
C. Converged ports
D. Root bridge
E. Root ports
F. Backup ports
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 16
Which three statements about the ARP function are true? 640-875 dumps (Choose three.)
A. ARP is used to determine an IP address.
B. An ARP request is broadcast at Layer 3.
C. An ARP response is broadcast at Layer 2.
D. ARP tables are maintained on Layer 3 devices.
E. The destination MAC address of an ARP request is that of the ARP responder.
F. ARP requests are broadcast at Layer 2.
G. ARP resolves MAC addresses to NET addresses.
H. ARP uses 0x0806 as the Type field in an Ethernet frame.
Correct Answer: DFH

QUESTION 17
Which statement about STP operations is true?
A. One root bridge exists per collision domain.
B. One root port is established per root bridge.
C. One designated port is defined per segment.
D. Non-designated ports are set in the forwarding state.
E. One root port exists per broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
What two commands enable port security and allow the switch to dynamically learn the connected MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. switch5(config-if)#switchport port-security
B. switch5(config)#switchport port-security
C. switch5(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address sticky
D. switch5(config)#switchport port-security mac-address sticky
E. switch5(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address dynamic
F. switch5(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address auto
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Which Cisco IOS CLI command is used to verify the speed and duplex settings on the Fa0/1 port on a Cisco switch?
A. show ip interfaces fa0/1
B. show interfaces fa0/1
C. show interfaces fa0/1 switchport
D. show ip interfaces brief
E. show interfaces switchport
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
If a bridge port is in the non-designated state, which two statements about spanning-tree operations on this port are true? (Choose two.)
A. This port is in the Forwarding state.
B. This port sends BPDUs on the attached link.
C. This port has the lowest cost to the root bridge.
D. This port is considered the root port.
E. This port receives BPDUs.
F. This port is in the Blocked state.
Correct Answer: EF

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Latest Cisco CCNP Cloud 300-460 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is changing the boot order in a boot policy. Which option lists the steps that accomplish this task?
A. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Storage.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Manage Boot Order tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Order.
B. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Compute.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Boot Policies tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Devices Order.
C. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Storage.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Boot Policies tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Devices Order.
D. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Compute.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Manage Boot Order tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Order.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is configuring vHBA. Which four fields are needed to configure vHBA? (Choose four.)
A. vHBA Name
B. Adapter Policy
C. Template Type
D. Organizations
E. Description
F. Fabric ID
G. UCS Organization Name
H. UCS Account Name
Correct Answer: ACEF

QUESTION 3
Which three options does the Cisco UCS Manager boot policy determine? (Choose three.)
A. initiator port range
B. selection of the boot device
C. location from which the server boots
D. initiator and target ports
E. global boot device priority
F. order in which boot devices are invoked
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-460 dumps
Which three commands complete the configuration for this Cisco Nexus 1000V port profile that is assigned to a vmkernel used for L3 VSM control plane? (Choose three.)
A. service-policy type qos output vmk-control
B. vmware port-group
C. system vlan 119
D. capability 13control
E. swithchport mode trunk
F. mtu 9000
G. swithchport 12control
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
An administrator is installing a hypervisor and has provisioned a dedicated LAN connectivity, set the boot order, and is now rebooting the server to start installation. 300-460 dumps Which method is the administrator using to install the hypervisor?
A. host image mapping
B. KVM console
C. PXE installation
D. virtual boot
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An architect must choose a VXLAN architecture that utilizes hardware-based VXLAN adapters. Which type of architecture must be selected?
A. Layer 3
B. NSX
C. ACI
D. Layer 2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three options describe the correct methods to install the Cisco Nexus 1000V VEM (VIB) software module on the VMware ESXi hypervisor? (Choose three.)
A. using the “Add Host to vSphere Distributed Switch” dialog on the vSphere Network tab when Update Manager is installed
B. esxcli software vib install –n/tmp/Cisco_bootbank_cisco-vem –v173-esx_5.2.1.3.1.4.0-3.2.1.vib
C. executing the Deploy-Nexus 1000V-VSEM.ps1 script
D. esxcli software vib install –v/tmp/Cisco_bootbank_cisco-vem –v173-esx_5.2.1.3.1.4.0-3.2.1.vib
E. using the Host Selection dialog box in Cisco Virtual Switch Update Manager
F. creating a baseline group in VMware Update Manager
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 8
An engineer must ensure that all VXLAN and VTEP processes are kept on purpose-built hardware to ensure that all overlay functions are as fast as possible. In which solution is all VXLAN and VTEP decision making moved to the hardware, versus potentially slower software control?
A. Layer 3
B. ACI
C. NSX
D. Layer 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which three statements about server pools are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco USC Director Displays only the managed servers in a server pool, but the size of the pool includes all servers.
B. Servers pools cannot be assigned to a Cisco USC Director group.
C. A given server can belong only to a specific server pool.
D. A server pool contains a set of servers that share the same attributes such as server type, amount of memory, local storage, type of CPU, or local drive configuration.
E. A server pool only includes servers from a specific chassis in the system.
F. If your system implements multitenansy through organizations, you can designate one ore more server pools to be used by a specific organization.
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 10
After implementing VXLAN VTEPs in a VMware NSX deployment, an engineer discovers that the VXLAN tunnel does not appear to function across the physical network. A pair of Cisco Nexus 5596UP Switches onnet the virtual network to the physical network. To permit the VXLAN tunnel to operate correctly, which action must the engineer take?
A. Upgrade Cisco Nexus to version 7.0 code.
B. Establish a dynamic routing protocol between the vSphere virtual router and the Cisco Nexus switches.
C. Remove storm control mechanisms that are blocking the establishment of the VXLAN tunnel.
D. Configure jumbo frame support on the Cisco Nexus switches.
E. Build a GRE tunnel to correctly encapsulate VXLAN between the networks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is installing a Bare Metal Agent and is in the process of adding an NFS mount point. Which Administration menu option does the administrator choose to add an NFS mount point?
A. Compute Accounts
B. Storage Accounts
C. Physical Accounts
D. Bare Metal Accounts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An engineer opens a KVM to a Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server and boots off a Windows Server ISO with a virtual mapped drive. The server is not attempting to boot from the ISO.
What must the engineer modify first?
A. boot policy to KVM CD
B. BIOS policy to CD
C. boot policy to CD
D. local disk policy to CD
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which four issues are often detected when validating workflows in Cisco UCS Director? (Choose four.)
A. Task Handler not found
B. missing administrator tasks or input tasks after import or upgrade
C. mapping mismatch
D. version incompatibilities
E. debugging logging information
F. missing optional values for tasks
G. missing task action value
H. missing mandatory values for tasks
Correct Answer: ABCH

QUESTION 14
A Cisco UCSM administrator has been tasked with deploying a new data center. Which two recommendations aid in the ability to associate a service with a server? (Choose two.)
A. The host control setting for a QoS policy applies to vNICs only. It has no effect on a vHBA.
B. You can assign only a QoS policy to a vHBA if the priority setting for that policy is set to fc, which represents the Fibre Channel system class.
C. The host control setting for a QoS policy applies to vHBAs only.
D. Power capping is supported for rack servers. If you include a power control policy in a service profile that is associated with a rack-mount server, the policy is implemented.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is attempting to resolve a workflow validation issue. Which option lists the steps that accomplish this task?
A. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Catalogs.
Click the Activities tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
B. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Orchestration.
Click the Activities tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
C. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Orchestration.
Click the Workflows tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
D. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Catalogs.
Click the Workflows tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
An engineer must create Cisco UCS service profiles for a new B-Series ESXi deployment. 300-460 dumps Which two configuration steps must be performed to isolate live migration traffic within a single Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Install Cisco Nexus 1000V.
B. Enable fabric failover.
C. Create a single vNIC for the vSwitch.
D. Disable fabric failover.
E. Create one vNIC per fabric for the vSwitch.
F. Install VM-FEX.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco Nexus 1000V configuration implements VxLAN segment 5001 as unicast and segment 5002 as multicast?
A. bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
no segment distribution mac
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
group 239.1.1.2
B. segment mode multicast
bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
segment mode unicast-only
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
group 239.1.1.2
segment mode multicast
C. segment mode unicast-only
bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
group 239.1.1.2
no segment mode unicast-only
D. segment mode unicast-only
bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
A Cisco USCM administrator is creating a boot policy. Which option lists the steps needed to accomplish this task?
A. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab.
On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Policies.
Right-click Boot Policies and select Create Boot Policy.
B. In the Navigation pane, click the Equipment tab.
Expand Equipment > Rack-Mounts >Servers > Boot Policies.
Right-click Boot Orders and select Create Boot Policy.
C. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab.
On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Policies.
Click Boot Order and the Modify Boot Policy wizard displays.
Click Modify Boot Policy.
D. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab.
On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Policies.
Click Boot Security.
Click Modify Boot Policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is creating a VSAN. Which two types of VSANs are available? (Choose two.)
A. storage cloud
B. storage hybrid
C. SAN cloud
D. SAN
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 20
An engineer has designed a new Cisco UCS Director workflow to create a new Fibre Channel LUN and present it to ESXi hosts. After execution of the workflow, the LUN is not visible to the ESXi hosts. Which two actions must be taken to begin to troubleshoot the failed workflow? (Choose two.)
A. Look for information within vCenter Server under the Events tab for vCenter Server.
B. Look at the information that is produced in the rollback script that is associated with the failed workflow.
C. Look for information within vCenter Server under the Events tab for the applicable ESXi server.
D. Look for information within Cisco UCS Director under the Log tab of the Service Request Details window.
E. Look for information within Cisco UCS Director under the Input/Output tab of the Service Request Details window.
Correct Answer: AD

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Best Cisco CCIE 400-051 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-15)

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps
Which option describes how this Cisco IOS SIP gateway, with an analog phone attached to its FXS port, handles an incoming informational SIP 180 response message without SDP?
A. It will enable early media cut-through.
B. It will generate local ring back.
C. It will do nothing because the message is informational.
D. It will terminate the call because this is an unsupported message format.
E. It will take the FXS port offhook.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) feature allows you to specify whether 180 messages with Session Description Protocol (SDP) are handled in the same way as 183 responses with SDP. The 180 Ringing message is a provisional or informational response used to indicate that the INVITE message has been received by the user agent and that alerting is taking place. The 183 Session Progress response indicates that information about the call state is present in the message body media information. Both 180 and 183 messages may contain SDP, which allows an early media session to be established prior to the call being answered.
Prior to this feature, Cisco gateways handled a 180 Ringing response with SDP in the same manner as a 183 Session Progress response; that is, the SDP was assumed to be an indication that the far end would send early media. Cisco gateways handled a 180 response without SDP by providing local ringback, rather than early media cut-through. This feature provides the capability to ignore the presence or absence of SDP in 180 messages, and as a result, treat all 180 messages in a uniform manner. The SIP–Enhanced 180 Provisional Response Handling feature allows you to specify which call treatment, early media or local ringback, is provided for 180 responses with SDP.

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps
Which number is sent as the caller ID when a user at extension 5001 places a call that matches this translation profile?
A. 14087775001
B. +4087775001
C. 4087750001
D. +14087775001
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
When someone dials 5001, it will match rule 2 because it exactly starts with 5(five) using the ^ sign and ends with [0-9] followed by $. In replace pattern you can see +1408777 & \0 means all set of match pattern. Thus, +14087775001.

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco IOS multipoint video conferencing profile is also known as best-effort video on the Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2 with packet voice and video digital signal processor 3?
A. homogeneous
B. guaranteed-audio
C. rendezvous
D. heterogeneous
E. flex mode video
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Three types of video profiles are supported: homogeneous conferences (video switching), heterogeneous conferences (video mixing), and guaranteed audio conferences (best-effort video).
As the name suggests, when Guaranteed Audio Conferences is configured, the system attempts to display video for all participants; however, it does not guarantee that the video of all participants is displayed. For those participants whose video is not displayed, participants are downgraded to audio-only and the profile guarantees preservation of the audio portion of the call. This option gives you added flexibility because the DSPs are not all reserved when the profile is created; the system attempts to reserve them when this profile is activated with an actual conference. For example: dspfarm profile 1 conference video guaranteed-audio codec h264 vga codec h264 4cif

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps
IP phone 1 has MAC address of 1111.1111.1111, and IP phone 2 has MAC address of 2222.2222.2222. The first two incoming calls rang both phones and were answered by IP phone 2.
Which option describes what will happen to the third incoming call?
A. Both phones ring, but only IP phone 1 can answer the call.
B. Both phones ring and either phone can answer the call.
C. Only IP phone 1 rings and can answer the call.
D. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2100.
E. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2200.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
As we can see busy-trigger-per-button set to 2 in voice register pool 1(IP Phone 1). So, IP Phone 1’s channel is free for receiving incoming calls and right now IP Phone 2 is busy answering call.

QUESTION 5
Which SIP message element is mapped to QSIG FACILITY messages being tunneled across a SIP trunk between two Cisco IOS gateways?
A. SIP UPDATE
B. SIP OPTIONS
C. SIP SUBSCRIBE
D. SIP INFO
E. SIP NOTIFY
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Mapping of QSIG Message Elements to SIP Message Elements 400-051 dumps
This section lists QSIG message elements and their associated SIP message elements when QSIG messages are tunneled over a SIP trunk.

QSIG FACILITY/NOTIFY/INFO
<—>
SIP INFO

QSIG SETUP
<—>
SIP INVITE

QSIG ALERTING
<—>
SIP 180 RINGING

QSIG PROGRESS
<—>
SIP 183 PROGRESS

QSIG CONNECT
<—>
SIP 200 OK

<—>
SIP BYE/CANCEL/4xx—6xx Response

QUESTION 6
Which two types of line codes are configurable for an E1 PRI controller on a Cisco IOS router? (Choose two.)
A. CRC4
B. AMI
C. B8ZS
D. HDB3
E. ESF
F. SF
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
Configuring an NM-xCE1T1-PRI Card for an E1 Interface Perform this task to select and configure an NM-xCE1T1-PRI network module card as E1.
SUMMARY STEPS
1. enable
2. configure terminal
3. card type e1 slot
4. controller e1 slot / port
5. linecode {ami | hdb3}
6. framing {crc4 | no-crc4}

QUESTION 7
Which two statements describe characteristics of Cisco Unified Border Element high availability, prior to Cisco IOS release 15.2.3T, using a box-to-box redundancy configuration? (Choose two.)
A. It leverages HSRP for router redundancy and GLBP for load sharing between a pair of routers.
B. Cisco Unified Border Element session information is check-pointed across the active and standby router pair.
C. It supports media and signal preservation when a switchover occurs.
D. Only media streams are preserved when a switchover occurs.
E. It can leverage either HSRP or VRRP for router redundancy.
F. The SIP media signal must be bound to the loopback interface.
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
Configure box-to-box redundancy when you:
• Expect the behavior of the CSSs to be active/standby (only the master CSS processes flows)
• Can configure a dedicated Fast Ethernet (FE) link between the CSSs for the VRRP heartbeat
Do not configure box-to-box redundancy when you:
• Expect the behavior of the CSSs to be active-active (both CSSs processing flows). Use VIP redundancy instead.
• Cannot configure a dedicated FE link between the CSSs.
• Require the connection of a Layer 2 device between the redundant CSS peers

QUESTION 8
400-051 dumps
IP phone 1 has MAC address of 1111.1111.1111, and IP phone 2 has MAC address of 2222.2222.2222. The first two incoming calls were answered by IP phone 1, and the third incoming call was answered by IP phone 2.
Which option describes what will happen to the fourth incoming call?
A. Both phones ring, but only IP phone 2 can answer the call.
B. Both phones ring and either phone can answer the call.
C. Both phones ring, but only IP phone 1 can answer the call.
D. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2100.
E. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2200.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
IP Phone 1 & 2 both have busy-trigger-per-button configured to 3 & 2 respectively. So, the 4th incoming call will get forwarded to 2100 as busy-triggers are exceeding in IP Phones.

QUESTION 9
Which statement describes the question mark wildcard character in a SIP trigger that is configured on Cisco Unity Express?
A. It matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9.
B. It matches one or more digits in the range 0 through 9.
C. It matches zero or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value.
D. It matches one or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value.
E. It matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9, when used within square brackets.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Table 5-2 Trigger Pattern Wildcards and Special Characters
Character
Description
Examples
X
The X wildcard matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9.
The trigger pattern 9XXX matches all numbers in the range 9000 through 9999.
!
The exclamation point (!) wildcard matches one or more digits in the range 0 through 9.
The trigger pattern 91! matches all numbers in the range 910 through
91999999999999999999999999999999.
?
The question mark (?) wildcard matches zero or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value.
The trigger pattern 91X? matches all numbers in the range 91 through
91999999999999999999999999999999.
+
The plus sign (+) wildcard matches one or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value.
The trigger pattern 91X+ matches all numbers in the range 910 through
91999999999999999999999999999999.
[ ]
The square bracket ([ ]) characters enclose a range of values.
The trigger pattern 813510[012345] matches all numbers in the range 8135100 through 8135105.

The hyphen (-) character, used with the square brackets, denotes a range of values.
The trigger pattern 813510[0-5] matches all numbers in the range 8135100 through 8135105.
^
The circumflex (^) character, used with the square brackets, negates a range of values.
Ensure that it is the first character following the opening bracket ([).
Each trigger pattern can have only one ^ character.
The trigger pattern 813510[^0-5] matches all numbers in the range 8135106

QUESTION 10
Which statement about a virtual SNR DN-configured Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express-enabled Cisco IOS router is true?
A. Virtual SNR DN supports either SCCP or SIP IP phone DNs.
B. A virtual SNR DN is a DN that is associated with multiple registered IP phones.
C. Calls in progress can be pulled back from the phone that is associated with the virtual SNR DN.
D. The SNR feature can only be invoked if the virtual SNR DN is associated with at least one registered IP phone.
E. A call that arrived before a virtual SNR DN is associated with a registered phone, and still exists after association is made, but cannot be answered from the phone.
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
Virtual SNR DN only supports Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone DNs.
Virtual SNR DN provides no mid-call support.
Mid-calls are either of the following:
– Calls that arrive before the DN is associated with a registered phone and is still present after the DN is associated with the phone.
– Calls that arrive for a registered DN that changes state from registered to virtual and back to registered.
Mid-calls cannot be pulled back, answered, or terminated from the phone associated with the DN.
State of the virtual DN tran

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps
In an effort to troubleshoot a caller ID delivery problem, a customer emailed you the voice port configuration on a Cisco IOS router. 400-051 dumps Which type of voice port is it?
A. FXS
B. E&M
C. BRI
D. FXO
E. DID
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Configuring FXS and FXO Voice Ports to Support Caller ID To configure caller-ID on FXS and FXO voice ports, use the following commands beginning in global configuration mode:
Command
Purpose
Step 1
Router(config)# caller-id enable
Enables caller ID. This command applies to FXS voice ports that send caller-ID information and to FXO ports that receive it. By default caller ID is disabled.
Note
If the station-id or a caller-id alerting command is configured on the voice port, these automatically enable caller ID, and the caller-id enable command is not necessary.
Step 2
Router(config-voiceport)# station-id name name
Configures the station name on FXS voice ports connected to user telephone sets. This sets the caller-ID information for on-net calls originated by the FXS port. You can also configure the station name on an FXO port of a router for which
incoming Caller ID from the PSTN subscriber line is expected. In this case, if no caller-ID information is included on the incoming PSTN call, the call recipient receives the information configured on the FXO port instead. If the PSTN subscriber
line does provide caller-ID information, this information is used and the configured station name is ignored. The name argument is a character string of 1 to 15 characters identifying the station. Note This command applies only to caller-ID
calls, not Automatic Number Identification (ANI) calls. ANI supplies calling number identification only.
Step 3
Router(config-voiceport)# station-id number number
Configure the station number on FXS voice ports connected to user telephone sets. This sets the caller-ID information for on-net calls originated by the FXS port. You can also configure the station number on an FXO port of a router for which
incoming caller ID from the PSTN subscriber line is expected. In this case, if no caller-ID information is included on the incoming PSTN call, the call recipient receives the information configured on the FXO port instead. If the PSTN subscriber
line does provide caller-ID information, this information is used and the configured station name is ignored. If the caller-ID station number is not provided by either the incoming PSTN caller ID or by the station number configuration, the calling
number included with the on-net routed call is determined by Cisco IOS software by using a reverse dial-peer search. In this case, the number is obtained by searching for a POTS dial-peer that refers to the voice-port and the destinationpattern number from that dial-peer is used. Number is a string of 1 to 15 characters identifying the station telephone or extension number.

QUESTION 12
Which call hunt mechanism is only supported by the voice hunt group in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router?
A. sequential
B. peer
C. longest idle
D. parallel
E. overlay
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Parallel Hunt-Group, allows a user to dial a pilot number that rings 2-10 different extensions simultaneously. The first extension to answer gets connected to the caller while all other extensions will stop ringing. A timeout value can be set whereas if none of the extensions answer before the timer expires, all the extensions will stop ringing and one final destination number will ring indefinitely instead. The final number could be another voice hunt-group pilot number or mailbox.
The following features are supported for Voice Hunt-Group:
Calls can be forwarded to Voice Hunt-Group
Calls can be transferred to Voice Hunt-Group
Member of Voice Hunt-Group can be SCCP, ds0-group, pri-group, FXS or SIP phone/trunk
Max member of Voice Hunt-Group will be 32

QUESTION 13
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express ephone button configuration separator enables overflow lines when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call?
A. o
B. c
C. w
D. x
E. :
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
x expansion/overflow, define additional expansion lines that are used when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call.

QUESTION 14
Which codec is supported on the Cisco PVDM2 DSP modules but not on the PVDM3 DSP modules?
A. G.728
B. G.729B
C. G.729AB
D. G.723
E. G.726
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
All codecs that are supported on the PVDM2 are supported on the PVDM3, except that the PVDM3 does not support the G.723 (G.723.1 and G.723.1A) codecs. The PVDM2 can be used to provide G.723 codec support or the G.729 codec can be as an alternative on the PVDM3

QUESTION 15
Which message is used by a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway to send periodic keepalives to its call agent?
A. CRCX
B. AUCX
C. NTFY
D. RQNT
E. 200 OK
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The gateway maintains this connection by sending empty MGCP Notify (NTFY) keepalive messages to Cisco CallManager at 15-second intervals. If the active Cisco CallManager fails to acknowledge receipt of the keepalive message within 30 seconds, the gateway attempts to switch over to the next highest order Cisco CallManager server that is available.
If none of the Cisco CallManager servers respond, the gateway switches into fallback mode and reverts to its default H.323 session application for basic call control support of IP telephony activity in the network.

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Microsoft Office 365 70-346 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Contoso, Ltd. plans to use Office 365 for email services and Skype for Business Online.
Contoso has four unique domain names.
You need to migrate domain names to Office 365.
Which two domain names should you exclude from the migration? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. contoso.us
B. contoso
C. contoso.local
D. contoso.co
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
You administer the Office 365 environment for a company that has offices around the world. All of the offices use the same Office 365 tenant.
You need to ensure that all users can access the services that are available in their regions.
Which setting or service should you update?
A. User location settings
B. User licenses
C. Service usage address
D. Rights management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You create a new retention policy that contains several retention tags. A user named Test5 has a client computer that runs Microsoft Office Outlook 2007. You install Microsoft Outlook 2010 on the client computer of Test5. Test5 reports that the new retention tags are unavailable from Outlook 2010.
You verify that other users can use the new retention tags. You need to ensure that the new retention tags are available to Test5 from Outlook 2010.
What should you do?
A. Instruct Test5 to repair the Outlook profile.
B. Modify the retention policy tags.
C. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. Force directory synchronization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You deploy Skype for Business Online for a company that has offices in San Francisco and New York. The two offices both connect to the Internet. There is no private network link between the offices.
Users in the New York office report that they cannot transfer files to the users in the San Francisco office by using Skype for Business Online.
You need to ensure that users in both offices can transfer files by using Skype for Business Online.
What should you do?
A. Configure the firewall to open Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports 50060-50079.
B. Configure the firewall to open Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports 50040-50059.
C. Create a private network connection to share files.
D. Upgrade all of the Skype for Business Online clients to use Skype for Business client application.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365.
You need to estimate the post-migration network traffic.
Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft Online Services Diagnostics and Logging (MOSDAL) Support Kit
B. Microsoft Network Monitor
C. Skype for Business Bandwidth Calculator
D. Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your company has a subscription to Office 365 for midsize business and enterprises. The company uses Microsoft Skype for Business Online.
You need to open ports on the network firewall to enable all of the features of Skype for Business Online.
Which port or ports should you open? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. inbound TCP443
B. outbound TCP 5061
C. outbound UDP 3478
D. outbound TCP 443
E. outbound UDP 50000 to outbound UDP 59999
F. inbound TCP 8080
Correct Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 7
You have an Office 365 environment. Synchronization between the on-premises Active
Directory and Office 365 is enabled.
You need to deactivate directory synchronization.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Update-MsolFederatedDomain
B. Remove-MsolDomain
C. Remove-MsolFederatedDomain
D. Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You plan to deploy an Office 365 tenant to multiple offices around the country. 70-346 dumps
You need to modify the users and groups who are authorized to administer the Rights Management service.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-MsolGroupMember
B. Get-Add rm Role Based Administrator
C. Remove-AadrmRoleBasedAdministrator
D. Enable AadrmSuperUserFeature
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A company migrates to Office 365. 2,000 active users have valid Office 365 licenses assigned.
An additional 5,000 user accounts were created during the migration and testing processes. These users do not have any licenses assigned.
You need to remove the Office 365 user accounts that do not have any licenses assigned by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Get-MsolUser -All-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
B. Get-MsolUser-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
C. Get-MsolUser -All -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser -Force
D. Get-MsolUser -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser璅orce
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your company subscribes to an Office 365 Plan E3. A user named User1 installs Office Professional Plus for Office 365 on a client computer. From the Microsoft Online Services portal, you assign User1 an Office Professional Plus license.
One month after installing Office, User1 can no longer save and edit Office documents on the client computer. User1 can open and view Office documents.
You need to ensure that User1 can save and edit documents on the client computer by using office.
What should you do?
A. Install the Office Customization Tool.
B. Reinstall Office Professional Plus.
C. Install the Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant.
D. Upgrade the subscription to Plan E4.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active Directory (AD) Sync tool.
Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active Directory.
You need to synchronize the remaining users.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Populate an attribute for each user account.
B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
C. Perform a full synchronization.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync $false.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 12
Your company has a hybrid deployment of Office 365. All mailboxes are hosted on Office 365. All users access their Office 365 mailbox by using a user account that is hosted on- premises. You need to delete a user account and its associated mailbox.
Which tool should you use?
A. The Remove-MSOLUser cmdlet
B. The Remove-Mailbox cmdlet
C. The Office 365 portal
D. Active Directory Users and Computers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
An organization implements single sign-on (SSO) for use with Office 365 services. You install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) proxy server.
Users report that they are unable to authenticate. You launch the Event Viewer and view the event information shown in the following screen shot:
70-346 dumps
You need to ensure that users can authenticate to Office 365.
What should you do?
A. Re-enter the credentials used to establish the trust.
B. Verify the federation server proxy is trusted by the federation service.
C. Re-install the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate for the federation service.
D. Verify network connectivity between the Federation Service Proxy and federation server.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A company named Fabrikam, Inc. is deploying an Office 365 tenant. You install Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) on a server that runs Windows Server 2012.
The company’s environment is described in the following table:
70-346 dumps
You must obtain a certificate from a certification authority and install it on the federation servers.
You need to specify the subject name for the certificate.
Which name should you specify?
A. fs.fabnkam.com
B. server1.fabrikam.com
C. fabrikam.com
D. server2.fabrikam.com
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You prepare to install Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
You need to open the correct port between the AD FS proxy server and the AD FS federation server.
Which port should you open?
A. TCP 80
B. TCP 135
C. TCP 389
D. TCP 443
E. TCP 636
F. TCP 1723
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Contoso uses Office 365 for collaboration services. You implement single sign-on (SSO) with Office 365 by using Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
You need to implement Windows Azure multi-factor authentication.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. On the AD FS federation server, run PhoneFactorAgentSetup.exe.
B. On the AD FS Federation server, run WindowsAzureSDK-x64.exe.
C. On the AD FS Federation server, run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Register- AdfsAuthenticationProvider.
D. On the AD FS Federation server, run FsConfigWizard.exe.
E. Run the Active Directory Domains and Trusts MMC snap-in. Register Windows Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server as an additional authentication provider.
F. Run the Windows Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server Authentication Configuration Wizard.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 17
An organization with an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain migrates to Office 365. You need to manage Office 365 from a domain-joined Windows Server 2012 Core server. 70-346 dumps
Which three components should you install? Each answer presents part of the solution.
A. Azure Active Directory module for Windows PowerShell
B. Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5
C. Microsoft Office 365 Integration Module for Windows Small Business Server 2011 Essentials
D. Microsoft .NET Framework 4.0
E. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
F. Rights Management module for Windows PowerShell
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 18
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. The network contains an Active Directory domain. You configure single sign-on for all users.
You need to verify that single sign-on functions for the users who access Office 365 from the Internet.
What should you run?
A. the Get-MSOLFederationProperty cmdlet
B. the Test-OrganizationRelationship cmdlet
C. the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
D. the Microsoft Exchange Server Deployment Assistant
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in the question apply only to that question.
A company has an Office 365 tenant that has an Enterprise E1 subscription. You synchronize disabled user accounts from an Active Directory Domain Services environment.
You need to enable the user accounts in Office 365.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MsolUser
B. Redo-MsolProvisionUser
C. Set-MsolUserLicense
D. Set-MsolUserPrincipalName
E. Convert-MsolFederatedUser
F. Set-MailUser
G. Set-LinkedUser
Correct Answer: A

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Newest Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-365 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Refer to Exhibit.
300-365 dumps
What two items need to be supported on the VoWLAN phones in order to take full advantage of this WLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
A. APSD
B. 802.11a
C. 802.11e
D. WMM
E. 802.11r
F. SIFS
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
A network engineer for a college dormitory notices that student devices are filling up the SP-DB and are not allowing the shared wireless printers to be discovered.
Which feature can be used to reserve space in the SP-DB for the printers?
A. mDNS-AP
B. LSS
C. Priority MAC
D. sso
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Refer to Exhibit.
300-365 dumps
300-365 dumps
A wireless client is connecting to FlexAPI which is currently working standalone mode. The AAA authentication process is returning the following AVPs:
Tunnel-Private-Group-ld(81): 15 Tunnel-Medium-Type(65):IEEE-802(6) Tunnel-Type(64): VLAN(13) Which three behaviors will the client experience? (Choose three.)
A. While the AP is in standalone mode the client will be placed in VLAN 15.
B. While the AP is in standalone mode the client will be placed in VLAN 10.
C. When the AP transitions to connected mode the client will be de-authenticated.
D. While the AP is in standalone mode the client will be placed in VLAN 13.
E. When the AP is in connected mode the client will be placed in VLAN 13.
F. When the AP transitions to connected mode the client will remain associated.
G. When the AP is in connected mode the client will be placed in VLAN 15.
H. When the AP is in connected mode the client will be placed in VLAN 10.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 4
Which two options are limitations of using an AP as a workgroup bridge? (Choose two.)
A. Only factory-configured MAPs can support WGB mode.
B. MAPs that are configured in WGB mode do not answer S36 radio measurement requests.
C. A limited subset of Layer 2 security types are supported for wireless clients of a WGB.
D. There is a limit of 20 wired client devices.
E. Multiple VLANs are not supported for wireless clients.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
On which AP radio or radios is Cisco WGB association supported?
A. 2.4 GHz only
B. 2.4 or 5 GHz only
C. 2.4 5 or 4.9 GHz
D. 5 GHz only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A customer requires that an SSID is broadcasted to specific access points that use certain interfaces. 300-365 dumps Which feature can be used to achieve this goal?
A. mobility groups
B. flex-connect roups
C. interface groups
D. APgroups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is not a Cisco RF fingerprinting key advantage over Location Tracking?
A. Uses existing LWAPP-enabled Cisco Unified Networking components.
B. Proprietary client hardware or software is required.
C. Better accuracy and precision.
D. Reduced calibration effort.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A customer has implemented several WLANs in an auditorium utilizing a newly dedicated WLC and is experiencing excessive channel utilization regardless of occupancy. Which action reduces channel utilization without removing SSIDs?
A. Disable MCS data rates 0 through 11.
B. Disable MCS data rates used by 40 MHz channels.
C. Disable data rates that use CCK.
D. Disable VHT data rates.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A corporation has a Cisco Unified Wireless Network that has been deployed for voice coverage. The wireless data rates have been tuned to mandatory rates of 18 Mbps and 36 Mbps. Some wireless clients have been experiencing drops streaming multicast video while moving throughout the building. What is the cause of the drop in video?
A. Clients are roaming at lower data rates and are not maintaining 36Mbps connectivity.
B. Clients are not roaming due to coverage. This is causing the multicast data to drop due to the client re-associating often.
C. Clients are connected at 18Mbps; however other clients are connecting at 12Mbps and are causing the multicast video to degrade.
D. Clients are maintaining a 12Mbps rate and cannot receive the stream at 18Mbps.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer used an interface group under the SSID configuration but noticed that a test client is getting an IP assigned in a different VLAN from the DHCP server. Which two options override the interface group configuration on the SSID? (Choose two.)
A. static VLAN on client
B. ACL
C. APgroup
D. static IP on client
E. MAC filtering
F. RFgroup
G. AAA override
Correct Answer: CG

QUESTION 11
A WLAN engineer has been asked to upgrade the software on a MSE 3365 Appliance. The engineer cannot access the system using the root password and the Grub password as the details had never been documented. How should the engineer perform the password recovery?
A. Use a console cable.
B. Contact Cisco TAC and arrange an RMA of the MSE.
C. Boot the MSE using the software installation DVD.
D. The Password can be reset using Prime Infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The customer has deployed C7960 phones with clients connected to them. What switch feature could be enabled to distinguish IP voice traffic from client data traffic?
A. VoiceVLAN
B. QoS routing
C. WME
D. WeightedQueuing
E. QBSS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which show command will show whether a WLAN is locally or centrally switched on a Cisco Wireless Lan Controller?
A. show ap config general Cisco_AP
B. show wlan wlan_id
C. show fexconnect summary
D. show fexconnect group detail
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A network engineer is experiencing issues enabling LAG on the WLC. Which four characteristics should be validated to ensure LAG configuration? 300-365 dumps (Choose four.)
A. All ports participate in the LAG by default when LAG is enabled on the controller
B. Dynamic interfaces and management are moved to port 1
C. Primary and secondary ports are needed for each interface.
D. Multiple untagged interfaces to the same port are not allowed.
E. EtherChannel must be configured for mode “on” on the switch.
F. Only one functional physical port is needed to continue to pass traffic.
G. Multiple LAGs are permitted on the controller.
H. The WLC does not need to be rebooted to enable the LAG configuration.
Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 15
A network engineer is debugging issues with the mDNS gateway. Which type of reply should be seen in the Wireshark capture when querying for a mDNS servicein the Bonjour Cache?
A. unicast from Prime Infrastructure
B. unicast from controller
C. multicast from devices
D. multicast from controller
E. unicast from devices
F. multicast from Prime Infrastructure
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
A customer requires that the remote site be able to utilize local servers when the AP is in WAN-down (standalone mode). Which AP mode must be configured on the wireless controller?
A. SE-Connect
B. Monitor
C. Local
D. FlexConnect
E. Sniffer
F. Rogue Detector
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
What are two functions of the RAP in a mesh network? (Choose two.)
A. It provides a wired connection for the wireless mesh APs.
B. It adds capacity and resilience to a mesh area.
C. It creates a centralized management location for the mesh network.
D. It reduces the hop count to the wireless network that is connected to the edge.
E. It routes traffic from the wireless mesh to the wired network.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
What address do PIM routers listen to in order to automatically discover the best RP for each multicast group?
A. 224.0.0.13
B. 224.0.1.39
C. 224.0.0.14
D. 224.0.140
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
A wireless engineer wants to enable optimized roaming for their 5GHz wireless network with these settings: -72dBm RSSI value 25% coverage exception level percentage and a minimum of 50 packets received.
Which two commands achieve these settings? (Choose two.)
A. config advanced 802.11a coverage data fail-percentage 25
B. config advanced 802.11b optimized-roaming enable
C. config advanced 802.11b coverage data rssi-threshold -72
D. config advanced 802.11a optimized-roaming enable
E. config advanced 802.11a coverage data rssi-threshold -72
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 20
An engineer wants to configure WebEx to adjust the precedence and override the QoS profile on the WLAN. Which configuration is needed to complete this task?
A. Change the AVC application WebEx-app-sharing to mark
B. Create an ACL for WebEx.
C. Change the WLAN reserved bandwidth for WebEx.
D. Create an AVC profile for WebEx marked with a lower DSCP value
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which statement about when you configure FlexConnect APs and you want to set up Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming is true?
A. FlexConnect groups are required for Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming to work with FlexConnect access points.
B. APs that are in the same FlexConnect group but associated to different WLCs support Cisco Centralized Key Management.
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming among FlexConnect and non-FlexConnect access points is supported.
D. The FlexConnect access point must be in standalone mode to support Cisco Centralized Key Management.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
A network engineer observes a spike in controller CPU overhead and overall network utilization after enabling multicast on a controller with 500 APs. What feature is necessary to correct the issue?
A. controller IGMP snooping
B. unicast AP Multicast Mode
C. broadcast forwarding
D. multicast AP Multicast Mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
When a Vocera badge performs a broadcast call in a properly configured VoWLAN using WLC v7.0 which two choices indicate how the QoS is marked? (Choose two.)
A. Upstream marked as Best Effort.
B. Upstream marked as ToS CS4.
C. Upstream marked as DSCP EF
D. Downstream marked as DSCP EF
E. Downstream marked as Best Effort.
F. Downstream marked as Silver.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 24
An engineer would like to capture NetFlowdata on PI. Which resource is required to allow this?
A. Cisco MSE as NetFlow exporter
B. Prime Infrastructure 1.0 or later
C. Cisco NAC as NetFlow exporter
D. Cisco ISE as NetFlow exporter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What is the best practice for setting the WLC v7.0 use of WLAN QoS settings to support SIP phones on a VoWLAN?
A. Configure SIP with static CAC only with SIP call snooping.
B. Configure SIP with static CAC only without SIP call snooping.
C. Configure SIP with load-based CAC only with SIP call snooping.
D. Configure SIP with load-based CAC only without SIP call snooping.
E. Configure SIP with load-based CAC and TSPEC only with SIP call snooping.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A downstream packet containing a DSCP value arrives at the WLC Ethernet interface from the wired source network. The WLC is configured for QoS WLAN 802.1p mapping. How does the WLC treat the CAPWAP QoS marking when leaving the controller interface for the respective AP and final wireless client destination?
A. No outer CAPWAP or inner QoS tagging is applied.
B. No outer CAPWAP QoS tag is applied but the original DSCP is maintained inside CAPWAP.
C. The outer CAPWAP CoS is marked and capped while the inner DSCP maintains the original marking.
D. The outer CAPWAP DHCP is marked and capped without any inner DSCP value.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
VoWLAN implementation plans for a current mix of existing Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7920G and 7921G to a final migration of Wireless IP Phones 7925G in a single WLAN. What would be the most appropriate WLC WLAN configuration to end with Wireless IP Phones 7925G?
A. 7920 Client CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = All; WMM = Disabled
B. 7920 AP CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = All; WMM = Allowed
C. 7920 Client CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11a only; WMM = Disabled
D. 7920 AP CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11a only; WMM = Allowed
E. 7920 Client CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11b/g only; WMM = Disabled
F. 7920 AP CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11b/g only; WMM = Allowed
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
You are deploying a combination of Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G at your branch offices in a centralized call processing environment that requires high availability at branch locations. 300-365 dumps Which three components need to be verified before the wireless IP phones can be deployed? (Choose three.)
A. Sufficient SRST license support at each branch location
B. Support for local voice mail
C. Branch gateways support MoH
D. Properly configured QoS over the IP WAN links
E. Support for single number reach
F. Support for E.164 dialing
G. Sufficient IP phone licenses in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
Correct Answer: ADG

QUESTION 29
You have a VoWLAN configured for platinum QoS WMM and CAC. IP phones for this VoWLAN include the Nokia and Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7920G (pre-v2.0 firmware) 7921G and 7925G. The Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G work properly but the Nokia and the Wireless IP Phones 7920G associate with the WLAN but cannot place calls. What is the issue?
A. The lowest mandatory speed in the WLAN is too high and needs to be reduced.
B. The Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7920G and Nokia IP phones do not support TSPEC
C. EDCA needs to be enabled on the WLAN.
D. HCCA needs to be enabled on the WLAN.
E. The reserved roaming bandwidth setting is set too low.
F. The expedited bandwidth setting needs to be enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
DRAG DROP
Drag the QoS values from the lef and drop them in the correct descending order of priority on the right.
Select and Place:
300-365 dumps
Correct Answer:
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Latest Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-360 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-12)

QUESTION 1
An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n client compatibility?
A. UNII-2
B. UNII-2e
C. UNII-3
D. UNII
E. UNII-1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
An engineer is installing a wireless network in an industrial area with extreme temperatures and a significant amount of dust. Which enclosure should be used to protect the APs?
A. ACU
B. ADU
C. NEMA
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEHF

QUESTION 5
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers.
What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two steps are associated with the active portion of the audit when a post-installation audit is performed with an auditing tool such as Ekahau? 300-360 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Check for co-channel interference by standing near an access point on one channel and watching for other access points that are on the same channel.
B. Verify smooth roaming.
C. Check to see if the signal level on other access points that are heard on the same channel is at least 19dBm weaker than the access point that you are next to.
D. Check that all channels are supported by the APs regardless of client capabilities.
E. Verify that the network traffic of physical data rate and packet loss meets user requirements.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-360 dumps
While testing the post-deployment WLAN network you discover that an AP has been placed in a difficult area. The AP cannot be moved easily because of various requirements. The client performance of various Apple and Microsoft operating system-based products does not meet expectations.
Which two options can help mitigate the performance issue? (Choose two.)
A. Add additional APs.
B. Increase the AP power level to maximum.
C. Rotate the AP 90 degrees to change antenna polarity.
D. Replace the AP with an AP and external antenna.
E. Change the AP location to one that is less RF hostile.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
An engineer would like to calibrate the RF environment to improve accuracy.
Which wireless attribute is added to the foor-level calculation by calibrating the foor?
A. attenuation
B. TX power
C. multipath
D. SNR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center which requires data and location services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. accesspointsincornersandalongperimeters
Correct Answer: BCG

QUESTION 10
A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a foor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices.
Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new foor?
A. Data Coverage Support Margin
B. Demand Settings
C. Add AP Field
D. 802.11n Protocol Support
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? (Choose two.)
A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installationis complete.
D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach the Cisco TAC if they have any problems.
E. Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building.
Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? 300-360 dumps (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Correct Answer: CD

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New Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-170 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-25)

QUESTION 1
To maintain schema-consistency in an LDAP Directory Information Tree (DIT), the LDAP standard specifies that:
A. The client first downloads the DIT schema from the server and then makes sure every request it sends conforms to the schema; The server therefore doesn’t have to check DIT for consistency
B. The operator periodically scans the DIT to check that the schema is not violated, and manually corrects any inconsistencies caused by clients
C. The server periodically scans the DIT to check that the schema is not violated, and sends a notification to the operator when it finds an inconsistency caused by clients
D. The server periodically converts the DIT to an SQL database; Schema-checking is done by the SQL engine and then the database is converted back to a DIT
E. The server checks every client operation for schema consistency, and ignores requests that would result in a DIT inconsistency
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
In ACNS 5.X Content Delivery Network what is the purpose of defining a root Content Engine for a channel?
A. This Content Engine retrieves content from other Content Engines within the CDN.
B. This Content Engine is used by the administrator to manage the Content Delivery Network.
C. This Content Engine downloads the content from the origin server and distributes the content to all the Content Engines that belong to the Channel.
D. This Content Engine downloads the content from the Content Distribution Manager and distributes the content to all the Content Engines that belong to the Channel.
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is the usual procedure taken if an unrecognized non-mandatory ISDN IE is received by a network?
A. Final handle the call
B. Final handle the call if 2 such IE is received
C. Ignore only if the IE received is not CS0, otherwise final handle the call
D. Send a Facility msg to the user notifying the user of sending unknown IEs but don’t final handle
E. Ignore the IEs
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
ATM cells are received across a link on a:
A. Known PVC or SVC value
B. Known VCI or VPI value
C. Known PVC or VCI value
D. Known SVC or VPI value
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A router is receiving updates for a subnet from different routing protocols. The administrator wishes to take advantage of a path via a route with a less favorable Administrative Distance. 300-170 dumps What can be done to affect this without losing any of the updates?
A. Configure a static route with an Administrative Distance of 120
B. Use the Router Configuration mode command distance with an appropriate ‘weight’ for this subnet
C. Create a distribute-list to block this subnet
D. Modify the default-metric weight of the routing protocol offering the more favorable Administrative Distance
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
MPLS traffic engineering routing information is carried by:
A. BGP MEDs
B. MP-BGP
C. OSPF Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs
D. RTP or RTCP packets
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
WCCP is a communication protocol used between routers and cache devices. On what port does this protocol communicate?
A. 80
B. 2180
C. 8080
D. 52
E. 2048
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
In box-to-box redundancy on the CSS, to configure an ip circuit (VLAN) as a redundant circuit, what command is used?
A. Redundant-circuit
B. Redundant-type-circuit
C. Redundancy
D. Redundancy-type-circuit
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
If a Dialer Profile exists in the local configuration of a router, what is true?
A. A virtual-access password is configured automatically.
B. A virtual-access interface will inherit all configurations from the dialer profile.
C. AAA parameters cannot be applied to an interface.
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which three fundamental elements characterize the PKIs used in asymmetric cryptography?
A. Confidentiality, authorization, message integrity
B. Confidentiality, authentication, accounting
C. Confidentiality, authentication, authorization
D. Confidentiality, authentication, message integrity
E. Authentication, authorization, accounting
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Routers running OSPF and sharing a common segment become neighbors on that segment. What statement regarding OSPF neighbors is FALSE?
A. The Primary and Secondary addresses on an interface allow the router to belong to different areas at the same time.
B. All routers must agree on the stub area flag in the OSPF Hello Packets.
C. Neighbors will fail to form an adjacency if their Hello and Dead intervals differ.
D. Two routers will not become neighbors if the Area-ID and Authentication password do not match.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
LDAP can be preferred over X.500 because:
A. LDAP is a protocol to access Directories and X.500 is not
B. LDAP is more generic and allows access to all kind of Directories; X.500 is limited to certificate chains
C. LDAP is a lighter version of X.500 as it uses UDP instead of TCP
D. LDAP is a lighter version of X.500 as it doesn’t require a full OSI stack implementation
E. LDAP is cross-platform while X.500 runs only on legacy systems
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
To eliminate the need for adjacent routers on broadcast networks to form n(n-1)/2 adjacencies, IS-IS defines a pseudonode or Designated Intermediate System, DIS. All router on the broadcast medium form an adjacency with the DIS. The Backup DIS is called:
A. Redundant DIS
B. BDR
C. There is no concept of a backup DIS in IS-IS
D. Designated Redundant System
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What is true about the DLCI field in the Frame Relay header?
A. It consists of two portions, source and destination, which map data to a logical channel.
B. It generally has significance only between the local switch and the DTE device.
C. It is an optional field in the ITU-T specification.
D. It is present only in data frames sent through the network.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Parties learn about a CA’s Certificate Revocation List (CRL) through:
A. The CRL which is contained in the CA certificate; It contains a list of all revoked certificates.
B. The CRL which is contained in the CA certificate; It contains a list of the serial numbers and revocation dates of all revoked certificates.
C. A CRL Distribution Point or CDP which is contained in the CA certificate and points to a location from which the CRL (a list of the serial numbers and revocation dates of revoked certificates) may be retrieved.
D. Either the CRL which is contained in the CA certificate, or a CDP from which the CRL may be retrieved. The CRL contains a list of the serial numbers and revocation dates of all revoked certificates.
E. Either the CRL which is contained in the CA certificate, or a CDP from which the CRL may be retrieved. The CRL contains a list of all revoked certificates.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What is a possible way to avoid assymetric traffic flow when using the CSM for server load balancing and the CSM’s server side VLAN has an IP address configured on the MSFC? 300-170 dumps
A. In the server farm use the client nat command with a nat pool.
B. Use policy based routing to force traffic through the CSM’s client side VLAN.
C. Use policy based routing to force traffic through the CSM’s server side VLAN.
D. Set the server’s default gateway to the CSM’s client side IP address.
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 17
During an SSL transaction, when a client tries to authenticate the server, the client will:
A. Check that the server certificate has not expired
B. Use the Issuer public key to verify the signature of the server certificate
C. Use the Subject public key to verify the signature of the server certificate
D. A and B
E. A and C
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
OSPF is defined on a Frame Relay interface providing point-to-multipoint connections. The remote neighbors can reach this central site, but are complaining of routing failures between each of the remote sites. The central router has all the routes for each remote site. Based on this information, what can be diagnosed as the biggest potential problem?
A. An over-subscribed Frame Relay switch will cause some packet loss.
B. There are problems in the use of OSPF Authentication.
C. There is an incorrect selection of the Designated Router.
D. There is an incorrect DLCI assigned on a point-to-point sub-interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
What statement regarding Network Qualifier Lists (NQL) is most correct?
A. It is used to define a list of IP addresses and networks to simplify and enhance the implementation of ACLs.
B. It is used to define a list of IP addresses to simplify and enhance the implementation of advanced balanced sticky source IP.
C. It is used to define a list of IP addresses of hosts allowed SNMP access to a Content Smart Switch.
D. It is used to define a list of IP addresses of FTP servers.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Every time a typing mistake is made at the exec prompt of a router, the message from the router indicates a lookup is being performed. Also, there is a waiting period of several seconds before the next command can be typed. Can this behavior be changed?
A. No, this is a built in feature of Cisco IOS software.
B. Yes, use the no ip domain-lookup command.
C. Yes, use the no ip helper-address command.
D. Yes, use the no ip multicast helper-map command.
E. Yes, use the no exec lookup command.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
For the spanning tree algorithm, a bridge builds part of its forwarding table based on:
A. Destination MAC addresses
B. 802.2 headers
C. Source MAC addresses
D. The Ethernet type field
E. The SNAP field
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Within Cisco’s Application and Content Networking Software Version 5 and above, Simplified Hybrid Routing utilizes 2 standard protocols to direct a client to a local CE. What are they ?
A. WCCP and proxy
B. Layer 2 redirects and HTTP
C. DNS and WCCP
D. HTTP and HTTPS
E. DNS and HTTP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 23
In HTTP 1.1 there is a CONNECT method defined in the RFC. What is the purpose of this method?
A. To allow a system administrator to manage the cache via HTTP or HTTPS
B. For a user’s browser to set up an HTTPS tunnel to proxy server
C. To allow transparent ftp redirection
D. For a user’s browser to set up an FTP tunnel to an origin server and tell an upstream proxy to tunnel the response
E. For a user’s browser to tell a proxy to connect to an origin server and tunnel the following communications to and from the user
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 24
A router is set to boot from flash, but cannot find boot commands in the configuration.
Also, valid files do not exist in the default flash device. 300-170 dumps The router will:
A. Boot from ROM, since there are no valid sources
B. Try to boot from the network, using a default filename
C. Terminate the boot process with an error message
D. Try to boot from the network, then boot from ROM as a backup
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
A router is set up to redistribute routing updates from OSPF to RIP. What answer best describes issues the network administrator needs to be aware of?
A. Split Horizon, Poison Reverse, Holddown
B. Slow convergence, limited hop-count metric, lack of network mask information, periodic broadcasts
C. None, OSPF is a link-state routing protocol which overcomes issues found in RIP.
D. Difference in metrics (e.g. hops vs. cost), subnet mask allocation/addressing (e.g. VLSM vs. fixed subnet mask length), routing protocol summarization (e.g. network boundaries)
Correct Answer: D

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New Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-15)

QUESTION 1
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? (Choose two)
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the Company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages. What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 4
You have been brought in to troubleshoot an EIGRP network. A network engineer has made configuration changes to the network rendering some locations unreachable. You are to locate the problem and suggest solution to resolve the issue.
300-135 dumps
R5 has become partially isolated from the remainder of the network. R5 can reach devices on directly connected networks but nothing else. 300-135 dumps What is causing the problem?
A. An outbound distribute list in R3
B. Inbound distribute lists in R5
C. An outbound distribute list in R6
D. Incorrect EIGRP routing process ID in R5
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the networkaddressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. Ipv4 OSPF Routing
D. Ipv4 EIGRP Routing.
E. Ipv4 Route Redistribution.
F. Ipv6 RIP Routing
G. Ipv6 OSPF Routing
H. Ipv4 and Ipv6 Interoperability
I. Ipv4 layer 3 security.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the global configuration, delete the no ip dhcp use vrf connected command.
B. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the default -router 10.2.1.254 command and enter the default-router 10.1.4.5 command.
C. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the network 10.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 command and enter the network 10.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 command.
D. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, issue the no ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.253 command and enter the ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.2 command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2(2026::102:1).
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic? 300-135 dumps
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
300-135 dumps
How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat outside command.
C. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command.
D. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. 300-135 dumps After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

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The Best Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
A customer wants to analyze the data rates that are available to a corporate laptop in its wireless deployment. The customer wants a heat map that displays actual data and shows the data rates that are available to the client in different areas of its facility. When using AirMagnet Survey PRO, which type of survey provides the actual data rates?
A. virtual
B. predictive
C. passive
D. active
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A network engineer notices that two mesh APs are having problems communicating. After reviewing the current radio configurations, it is noted that one AP is transmitting at 3 mW while the other is transmitting at 60 mW. How many decibels would the 3-mW AP need its power increased to match the 60-mW AP?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 13
D. 20
E. 57
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
200-355 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. A customer is using central web authentication with a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller and Cisco Identity Services Engine. An error occurs when wireless clients are redirected to the hosted splash page. What is causing the client error?
A. Secure Web Mode is disabled on the WLC.
B. OCSP is disabled on the WLC.
C. Management Via Dynamic Interface is disabled on the WLC.
D. Ethernet Multicast Forwarding is enabled on the WLC.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which path do you take to manage the results of a report that had been run on network utilization? 200-355 dumps
A. Reports andgt; Report Launch Pad andgt; Device andgt; Utilization
B. Reports andgt; Report Launch Pad andgt; Scheduled Run Results
C. Reports andgt; Saved Reports andgt; Scheduled Run Results
D. Reports andgt; Scheduled Run Results
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
200-355 dumps
Select and Place:
200-355 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-355 dumps
QUESTION 6
An engineer is using a predictive survey tool to estimate placement of APs in a carpeted office space. Most interior walls should be assigned which attenuation value?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 4 dB
D. 5 dB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which wireless topology supports roaming?
A. IBSS
B. BSS
C. ESS
D. bridging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two factors must be considered when evaluating an RF interferer for severity? (Choose two.)
A. distance from the AP
B. dBm
C. the type of security crack being used
D. duty cycle
E. number of interfering IP stations in the cell
F. duplicate SSID
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
A controller is connected to a Cisco Catalyst switch. The switch port configuration looks like this:
interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/10
switchport
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,20,30,50
switchport trunk native vlan 20
switchport mode trunk
Which controller CLI command assigns its management interface to the native VLAN interface of the Cisco Catalyst switch?
A. config interface vlan management 0
B. config interface vlan management 1
C. config interface vlan management 20
D. config interface vlan management 30
E. config interface vlan management 50
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer has been asked to disable all OFDM rates in the wireless environment. What three rates should be disabled to fulfill this requirement? 200-355 dumps (Choose three.)
A. 2
B. 5.5
C. 6
D. 9
E. 11
F. 12
G. 18
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
Which type of authentication is used initially by a controller-based AP so that a guest client can get an IP address?
A. 802.1x
B. EAP
C. LEAP
D. open authentication
E. TLS
F. SSL
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
200-355 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. During deployment of a WLC on a customer site, the GUI log displayed this error message. What could be causing this error?
A. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has reached maximum capacity.
B. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has been deleted.
C. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to a FlexConnect AP group.
D. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to the default AP group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which user group has the ability to configure all features of the Cisco WCS except the user accounts and passwords?
A. Admin
B. SuperUser
C. Root
D. Supervisor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An engineer is connecting a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller that must connect to an out-of- band management network for management only. Which two options should be used for the port on the WLC and the cable type? (Choose two.)
A. service port
B. redundancy port
C. console port
D. distribution system port
E. straight through cable
F. crossover cable
G. console cable
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
How does an LWAP receive a configuration file?
A. It is configured manually.
B. It receives a configuration from the controller.
C. It automatically ships with a configuration.
D. It receives a configuration from a TFTP server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What two capabilities would be present on a wireless client device that supports CCXv3? (Choose two.)
A. WPA2
B. 802.1x
C. PEAP-MSCHAP
D. NAC
E. MFP
F. EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
A customer mounted three new APs in a small business. After configuring the IP address, users still could not access the web through the new access points. What two configurations are needed to fix this? (Choose two.)
A. Security parameters
B. Gateway address
C. Service Set ID
D. Antenna option
E. EAP Authentication
F. Unique AP Name
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which two statements about the results of the Cisco WCS version 7.0 client troubleshooting tool are true? (Choose two.)
A. Results of Layers 1 – 3 are provided.
B. Results of only Layers 2 and 3 are provided.
C. Results of Layers 4 – 7 are provided.
D. The tabulated results vary depending on the client type.
E. Results are provided in a fixed four-part tabulation.
F. Results are provided in a fixed six-part tabulation.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
200-355 dumps
Select and Place:
200-355 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-355 dumps
QUESTION 20
Which two formats are available for Cisco WCS reports? 200-355 dumps (Choose two.)
A. PDF
B. CSV
C. HTML
D. TXT
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
An enterprise needs their iPhones to connect to the EAP-TLS network. How should the devices be configured?
A. push profile and certificate through Configuration Utility
B. configure directly through Settings application
C. email certificate to device then configure through Settings application
D. download certificate from web page then configure through Settings application
E. push profile and certificate through iTunes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which option describes computer-to-computer wireless communication?
A. BSS and BSA
B. IBSS and ad hoc network
C. ad hoc network and BSA
D. IBSS and ESS
E. ESS and BSA
F. BSS and ad hoc network
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A wireless engineer is designing the wireless networking for a company with offices in two different locations. Which two regulatory bodies should they check to find the maximum EIRP allowed? (Choose two.)
A. IEEE
B. FCC
C. ITU-R
D. ETSI
E. Wi-Fi Alliance
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
A customer has asked for its wireless equipment to be managed as securely as possible. Which three management protocols will provide encrypted access to the equipment? (Choose three.)
A. Secure Shell
B. HTTPS
C. SNMPv3
D. Telnet
E. SNMPv2c
F. HTTP
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 25
The wireless network is using controller-based APs and version 7.0 MR1. The APs appear to be connected properly to the controllers. A wireless user near one of the APs reports that they are unable to connect to the network with their preshared key.
Which option shows the GUI path where you can check the connection status of that client?
A. WLANs andgt; WLAN_ID andgt; Advanced
B. Security andgt; Clients
C. Security andgt; Advanced andgt; Clients
D. Monitor andgt; Clients
E. Wireless andgt; 802.11b/g/n andgt; clients
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
What authentication method requires a certificate on both the client and authentication server?
A. PEAP
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-FAST
D. WPA-PSK
E. WEP
F. EAP-TTLS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What is the function of the Cisco AnyConnect DART tool? 200-355 dumps
A. creates a compressed bundle of client logs and information
B. visualizes a WLAN environment, showing the possible locations of problems
C. gathers statistics from neighboring clients for comparison to the baseline
D. helps to troubleshoot a WLAN connection by using easy-to-use wizards and statistic viewers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which protocol helps the administrator to determine whether a detected rogue AP is in the network of the organization?
A. RLDP
B. RCP
C. RDP
D. RAPP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What three configuration options can be executed by navigating to the WCS Administration andgt; AAA menu? (Choose three.)
A. Add a Lobby Ambassador guest
B. Add a LDAP server
C. Add an administrative user
D. Add a MAC address list filter
E. Add a RADIUS server
F. Add a TACAS+ server
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 30
An engineer is seeing a pattern closest to that of an Isotropic Radiator. What other antenna will produce a similar pattern?
A. 5 dBi patch
B. 13.5 dBi Yagi
C. 2.2 dBi omni
D. 21 dBi parabolic
Correct Answer: C

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300-165 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is the benefit of the Priority-Based Flow control feature in Data Center Bridging?
A. provides the capability to manage a bursty, single traffic source on a multiprotocol link
B. enables bandwidth management between traffic types for multiprotocol links
C. addresses the problem of sustained congestion by moving corrective action to the network edge
D. allows autoexchange of Ethernet parameters between switches and endpoints
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
DCNM device discovery is done by connecting to Cisco NX-OS devices and doing which three of these? (Choose three.)
A. Collecting the running configuration
B. Raising the logging level to meet the minimum requirement
C. Discovering all devices by default
D. Discovering devices using multiple user accounts as long as they are administrator-level accounts
E. Using LLDP to discover network adaptors
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 3
On the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, Control Plane Policing is enforced on which component?
A. The supervisor module enforces CoPP before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
B. The fabric modules enforce CoPP in the fabric before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
C. The linecards enforce CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
D. The egress virtual output queue enforces CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
On a Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS), which two statements regarding Ethanalyzer are true? 300-165 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Interface inbound-low handles Rx and Tx of low-priority control packet
B. Interface inbound-lo handles Rx and Tx of high-priority control packet
C. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth3
D. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth4
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which component of the Cisco Nexus 7010 architecture provides out-of-band management, an always-on microprocessor for disaster recovery, and remote restart capabilities?
A. central arbiter
B. Connectivity Management Processor
C. supervisor engine
D. dedicated s ervice modules
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When testing ICMP access to a functional load-balancing ACE VIP, it fails. What is the reason of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is shut down
B. An access list is denying ICMP
C. Routing is not configured properly
D. vip icmp-reply is inactive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which statement is true regarding Backup tasks in Cisco UCS?
A. They are created automatically and stored on the FI
B. They are created manually and exported to a remote server
C. They are automatically scheduled to run every 24 hours
D. They are manually scheduled and stored on the FI
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What is the main function of the device-alias distribute command?
A. This command distributes the device alias configuration on the existing switch to all the other switches in the Cisco Fabric Services region.
B. This command enables distribution and will send the configuration after a commit is executed.
C. This command changes the distribution mode for device aliases.
D. There is no such command.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the use of an “all configurations” backup in Cisco UCS?
A. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to a 6140 and retain the same service profiles
B. Can only be used on the fabric interconnect on which it was created
C. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to 6140 and retain system IP addresses and cluster information
D. Can be used to match firmware versions between 6120 and 6140 during a migration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which information is the most important to know early in a business requirements project? 300-165 dumps
A. the customer’s go-to-market approach for generating revenue
B. competitor prices
C. the organizational structure
D. the company’s budget for marketing products planned for two years in the future
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
In the Cisco future solutions architecture framework, the security solutions are directly built upon which component?
A. management and intelligence capabilities
B. Cisco security platforms
C. third-party applications
D. security intelligence operations
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
KAL-AP on the Cisco ACE allows communication with Cisco ACE Global Site Selector, to report virtual IP and real server availability. Which statement is true about KAL-AP?
A. It is a Cisco propriety keepalive.
B. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP entries.
C. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP keepalives.
D. It is used for both Cisco and non-cisco load balancers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which option is a way to validate that you have established credibility with a business executive?
A. Ask an IT stakeholder to inquire with the executive on your behalf.
B. Brainstorm with the internal team to get feedback from peers.
C. Ask the executive whether you could join a future staff meeting and present for 15 minutes.
D. Offer to show the executive a demonstration of the latest security software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which statement about discovery meetings for larger scope projects is true?
A. Discovery should be performed to a lower level of detail than for smaller projects.
B. Planning for discovery activities may take more effort, but this step is essential.
C. The project team should be staffed with more subcontractors to keep the costs down.
D. Request that the customer captures a baseline of needs in advance of your work.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which statement about how Business Model Canvas diagrams are a useful tool is true?
A. They depict the operating procedures for system management.
B. They establish a consensus view among customer executives about the organization strategy and major processes.
C. They decompose the processes for a single department.
D. They identify the bottlenecks within a customer service process.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which statement about why stakeholder analysis for a large initiative can be challenging is true? 300-165 dumps
A. A higher level of politics and uncertainty typically exists with larger initiatives.
B. The IT department most likely has a higher level of influence as compared to other projects.
C. The stakeholder analysis 2×2 framework — interest vs. power — only works for small scope projects.
D. It is necessary to assess 90% or more of the stakeholders for an effort.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which option describes the default predictor on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a client request?
A. the hash cookie, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on a cookie name
B. least bandwidth, which selects the server that processed the least amount of network traffic
C. round robin, which selects the next server in the list of real servers
D. the hash DNS, which selects the server using a hash value that is based on FQDN
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
In a FabricPath topology, each device is identified by a switch ID, and all Layer 2 forwarding tables are built based on the reachability of the switch ID. Which protocol is used to assign the switch ID?
A. No protocol is used. The switch ID is always assigned manually.
B. The Dynamic Resource Allocation Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
C. The Switch ID Assignment Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
D. The switch ID is assigned based on the system ID of the device.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which statement is a characteristic of future state capabilities?
A. They identify operating practices for a single department.
B. They depict all of the requirements that a customer organization desires (best case).
C. They convey the most important business elements that are needed to achieve goals in the future.
D. They should define very detailed needs for the near-term and high-level needs for one or more years out.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which action is the recommended way to establish trusted-advisor credibility with a senior business executive?
A. Ask open-ended questions about the organization’s priorities and goals.
B. Ask questions about the IT organization’s track record for problem resolution.
C. Provide an overview of your sales team’s reporting structure and metrics.
D. Ask detailed questions about the process to acquire cloud computing solutions.
Correct Answer: A

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