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810-403 dumps
QUESTION 1
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 3
Which two classes of solutions enable business outcomes for the Energy/Utilities industry? 810-403 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Advanced Routing
B. Data Center and Virtualization
C. Multilayer Switching
D. Internet of Everything
E. Remote Expert
F. Service Provider Network Infrastructure
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two options are part of the five steps approach needed to conduct a stakeholder analysis? (Choose two.)
A. Define ways to move stakeholders from their current to future position.
B. Identifycustomer stakeholders.
C. Define absolute power and interest of stakeholders.
D. Generate consensus among stakeholders.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
When you seek customer support for an action, which framework can be used to plan influential communication?
A. stakeholder analysis matrix
B. seven elements
C. principled negotiation
D. business model canvas
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which option is a main benefit that Cisco Partners bring to the table for customers?
A. additional teams to implement solutions in a timely manner
B. relationships with key Cisco personnel
C. a large customer base for which to sell Cisco services
D. Cisco expertise and the ability to have specializations in certain practice areas
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 9
Which framework can give the best insight and visual flow into how a customer\’s functions work together, to go from parts inventory through shipped product? 810-403 dumps
A. business model canvas
B. porters value chain
C. critical success factor
D. organization chart
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which option is the leading reason that technology projects fail, according to research?
A. too many stakeholders
B. lack of a business model canvas
C. poor stakeholder management
D. lack of budget
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which three options are financial challenges in business outcome-based selling? (Choose three.)
A. Competing stakeholder goals and expectations.
B. Difficulty to determine external value.
C. Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
D. Competitive analysis is often incomplete.
E. IT adoption and implementation may have long business cycles.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 12
Which question provides the best information to use to define customer success factors?
A. What services do you need?
B. Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
C. What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
D. What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Code: 300-115
Total Questions: 456 Q&As
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root switch.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true?
A. The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B. The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C. The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D. The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A network engineer is installing a switch for temporary workers to connect to. The engineer does not want this switch participating in Spanning Tree with the rest of the network; 300-115 dumps however, end user connectivity is still required. Which spanning-tree feature accomplishes this?
A. BPDUblock
B. BPDUfilter
C. BPDUignore
D. BPDUguard
E. BPDUdisable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.
300-115 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 interface Etherne0/0 goes down and recovers, which of the statement regarding HSRP priority is true?
A. The interface will have the priority decremented by 40 for HSRP group 1.
B. The interface will have the priority decremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
C. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 40 for HSRP group 1
D. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
E. The interface will default to the a priority of 100 for HSRP group 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
When you configure private VLANs on a switch, which port type connects the switch to the gateway router?
A. promiscuous
B. community
C. isolated
D. trunked
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
300-115 dumps Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to-MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, local username, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which VRRP router is responsible for forwarding packets that are sent to the IP addresses of the virtual router?
A. virtual router master
B. virtual router backup
C. virtual router active
D. virtual router standby
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? 300-115 dumps (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
Which option is a benefit of using VSS?
A. reduces cost
B. simplifies configuration
C. provides two independent supervisors with two different control planes
D. removes the need for a First Hop Redundancy Protocol
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch? 100-105 dumps
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host
B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. This is a default route.
B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.
C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.
D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.
E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can reach network 10.0.0.0.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
A. FastEthernet0 /0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 8
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 10
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.) 100-105 dumps
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 2
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
210-250
If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.           210-250
210-250
Which statement about the device time is true?
A. The time is authoritative, but the NTP process has lost contact with its servers.
B. The time is authoritative because the clock is in sync.
C. The clock is out of sync.
D. NTP is configured incorrectly.
E. The time is not authoritative.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10     210-250
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 11
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to the destination
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A specific URL has been identified as containing malware. What action can you take to block users from accidentally visiting the URL and becoming infected with malware.
A. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to block to the router’s local URL list.
B. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter firewall and add the URLs you want to allow to the router’s local URL list.
C. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to allow to the firewall’s local URL list.
D. Create a blacklist that contains the URL you want to block and activate the blacklist on the perimeter router.
E. Create a whitelist that contains the URLs you want to allow and activate the whitelist on the perimeter router.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements is true about person accounts in backup exports?
A. If your organization uses person accounts and you’re exporting contacts, person account records are included in the contact data. However, the contact data only includes the fields shared by contacts and person accounts.
B. If your organization uses person accounts and you’re exporting contacts, person account records are not included in the contact data.
C. If your organization uses person accounts and you’re exporting contacts, person account records are included in the contact data. The export includes all fields from person accounts.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A user who has access to formula field can reference fields to which he or she doesn’t have access to allowing him or her to view restricted data.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
ADM-201
QUESTION 3              ADM-201
The number of calculated values per report:
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 2
E. 15
F. 6
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Based on existing Master-Detail and Lookup relationships between objects, Sys Admins can create Custom Report Types to:
A. Choose which standard and custom objects to display
B. Select which fields can be used as columns
C. Define both inner and outer joins
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
Unmanaged packages do not include locked components but can be upgraded?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following chart types does not support Combination Chart?
A. Line
B. Horizontal Bar
C. Vertical Bar
D. Funnel Chart
E. Donut
F. Line Cumulative
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
Personal Tags can not be shared
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is a Record Type? Select the right choice
A. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values for both standard and custom picklist
B. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values only for standard picklist
C. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values only for custom picklist
D. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values only for new picklist
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What data can you request for in the weekly data export?
A. Only account data
B. Only report data
C. Accounts, opportunities, contacts, cases and solutions
D. All organization data
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
When using advanced currency management, can a past exchange rate be changes?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is the max length of the field type “Text”?
A. 3200
B. 320
C. 255
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
If your org is configured for data export, you can schedule automatic backup files at what intervals?
A. Daily, Weekly, and Monthly
B. Daily and Weekly
C. Weekly and Monthly
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What are two capacity-planning guidelines for voice and web conferencing customers? (Choose two.)
A. Build in growth factor of 1030 percent.
B. Consider customer LDAP vendor and number of profiled users.
C. When sizing on-premises web conferencing needs, assume only the internal WAN and LAN are accessed.
D. Schedule and dedicate “crisis management” meetings.
E. Increase the number of ports by 40 percent if customers use resevationless-only meetings.
Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which four of these are used when planning capacity requirements for on-premises voice conferencing? (Choose four.)
A. estimated external voice conferencing traffic percentage
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager and PBX deployment locations and size
C. estimated internal voice conferencing traffic (WAN and LAN)
D. estimated external and internal video traffic
E. VoIP endpoint types
F. fax machine endpoint types and locations
Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 3
Which two of these should you consider when planning capacity requirements for on-premises web conferencing? (Choose two.)
A. WAN bandwidth between offices and a Cisco Unified MeetingPlace internal web server
B. WebEx bandwidth sizing for external web traffic
C. Internet bandwidth available to external web servers
D. estimated separate internal web user licenses
E. fully qualified domain name and DNS requirements
Answer: AC
642-272 dumps
QUESTION 4                      642-272 dumps
Which two of these are used for gathering customer network information for deploying on-premises Cisco Unified MeetingPlace voice/video and web conferencing? (Choose two.)
A. remote worker locations
B. video endpoint location and bandwidth requirements
C. multicast data traffic requirements
D. MPLS deployment requirements
E. communities of voice traffic
Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
What are three Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Media Server network requirements? (Choose three.)
A. colocated on same VLAN with Applications Server
B. colocated on same VLAN with internal web server
C. colocated on same VLAN with voice RTP traffic
D. Less then ~350 ms round-trip latency
E. Less than ~100 ms round-trip latency
Answer: ACE

QUESTION 6
What are two Cisco Unified MeetingPlace on-premises web conferencing network requirements? (Choose two.)
A. one NIC only with one static IP address and FQDN with DNS resolution assigned
B. two NICs with two static IP addresses and FQDNs with DNS resolution assigned
C. third-party load balancers in front of clustered Cisco Unified MeetingPlace web servers
D. WebEx Meeting Center TSP connection using port 443 outbound
E. SQL Server 2005 servers deployed as external, using TCP port 1433, but not colocated with web conferencing servers
Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which of these protocols is used between Cisco 642-272 dumps Unified MeetingPlace Application Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager for voice and video conferencing?
A. H.323 and SIP
B. H.323 only
C. ICT only
D. SIP
Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two of these protocols are supported for video conferences to the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Media Server video blade? (Choose two.)
A. H.263
B. H.239
C. H.265
D. H.256
E. H.264Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
What are the two supported audio-only deployment options with Cisco Unified MeetingPlace 7.0? (Choose two.)
A. PBX (TDM) with T1 or E1 trunks to Application Server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager 5.X+ front end to Cisco Unified CallManager 4.X clusters
C. Cisco Unified Border Element front end SIP trunks to Media ServerD. Cisco Unified Border Element front end SIP to Application Server
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.1+ front end with intercluster trunk to Cisco Unified CallManager 4.X clusters
Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
What three network components are required for Cisco Unified MeetingPlace 7.0 audio deployments? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified MeetingPlace internal web servers
B. Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Media Server
C. Cisco Unified MeetingPlace external web servers
D. Cisco IOS voice gateways for PSTN external traffic
E. Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Application Server
F. Cisco Unified Videoconferencing 3545 ISDN Gateway
Answer: BDE

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Exam : 642-270
Title : Implementing Cisco TelePresence Video Networking Solutions Exam
Version : Demo

Question 1
On a Cisco TelePresence CLI, which command is the correct syntax to get Layer 2 address of all connected devices?
A. show arp list
B. utils arp list
C. arp list active
D. arp list list
E. show arp active
Answer: B
642-270 dumps
Question 2
On a Cisco TelePresence CLI, which command is the correct syntax to run a traceroute to a remote host.?
A. network traceroute {dest}
B. tracert {dest}
C. utils network tracert {dest}
D. set tracert {dest}
Answer: C

Question 3
Which QoS mapping is the best practice for Cisco 642-270 dumps TelePresence systems?
A. CoS 5 to map to a DSCP value of 40
B. CoS 4 to map to a DSCP value of 46
C. CoS 3 to map to a DSCP value of 48
D. CoS 5 to map to a DSCP value of 16
E. CoS 4 to map to a DSCP value of 32
Answer: E

Question 4
Which statement describe the Hard-lock VIP mode of a Cisco TelePresence Multipoint conference?
A. No Cisco TelePresence endpoint is allowed to join without the VIP approval.
B. No Cisco TelePresence endpoint is allowed to joinuntil the designated VIP Cisco TelePresence endpoint joins.
C. VIP video is switched out temporarily with voice-activatedswitching; VIP video is switched back automatically.
D. VIP video is always displayed at all sites and is never switched out.
Answer: D

Question 5
Given the following:
Cisco TelePresence endpoint A: In the Cisco Unified Communication Manager, Quality is set to High detail, Good Motion 720p
Cisco TelePresence endpoint B: In the Unified CM, Quality is set to High detail, Best Motion 1080p What happens when Cisco TelPresence endpoint A calls Cisco TelePresence endpoint B?
A. Cisco TelePresence endpoint A gets a fast busy.
B. The call connects, but it drops witha ° Confi gur ati on mi s mat c ¡± er ror on Ci sco Tel ePr esence endpoint B
C. Cisco TelePresence endpoint B quality upgrades to 1080p and the call goes through at 1080p.
D. Cisco TelePresence endpoint B quality drops down to 720p and the call goes through at 720p.
Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Your Cisco Unified Communications Manager Release 5.x has been upgraded to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Release 6.x, and Cisco Unified Presence Release 1.x has been upgraded to Cisco Unified Presence Release 6.x. After upgrade, which feature will not be found?
A.server redundancy
B.SIP PUBLISH trunk
C.calendaring via Microsoft Exchange
D.adjunct licensing
Answer:A

QUESTION 2
A user uses IBM Lotus Sametime to try a Click-to-Call, and the call gets rejected. The following are possible causes of this problem. Which one is least likely to be the cases?
A.Rerouting calling search space on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B.Cisco Unified Presence SIP proxy settings
C.Out-of-Dialog calling search space on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D.IBM Lotus Sametime users using the default Sametime community
Answer:B
642-181 dumps
QUESTION 3                       642-181 dumps
You are a network administrator for certways. You have just configured directory synchronization for users of a Cisco Unified Presence solution. In order that Cisco Unified Personal Communicator logins to authenticate with the directory, which of the following would you choose?
A.a secure link with Cisco Unified Communications Manager database
B.LDAP authentication enabled on Cisco Unified Presence
C.DC-Directory authentication with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D.LDAP authentication enabled on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Answer:D

QUESTION 4
User accounts for Cisco Unified Presence server are created with of the following applications. Which is the proper application?
A.Cisco Unified Presence server administration
B.Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration
C.Cisco Unified Personal Communicator administration
D.third-party administration
Answer:B

QUESTION 5
One of the following is a peripheral component of Cisco Unified Presence. Which one is it?
A.sync agent
B.profile agent
C.SIP presence engine
D.SIP proxy
Answer:B

QUESTION 6
Users of a Cisco Unified Presence solution are configured with directory synchronization. What is required for Cisco Unified Personal Communicator logins to authenticate with the directory?
A. a secure link with Cisco Unified Communications Manager database
B. LDAP authentication enabled on Cisco Unified Presence
C. DC-Directory authentication with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. LDAP authentication enabled on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
In which application are user accounts for Cisco Unified Presence server created?
A. Cisco Unified Presence server administration
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration
C. Cisco Unified Personal Communicator administration
D. third-party administration
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which option is a peripheral component of Cisco 642-181 dumps Unified Presence?
A. sync agent
B. profile agent
C. SIP presence engine
D. SIP proxy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of these Cisco Unified Communications Manager services is not required for integration with Cisco Unified Presence?
A. Cisco AXL web service
B. Cisco CallManager
C. Cisco Extension Mobility
D. Cisco TFTP
E. Cisco CTIManager
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
The phone status of a user is not updating automatically during use. What is the most likely problem?
A. The user is not associated with a line appearance.
B. The user is not logged in to Cisco Unified Personal Communicator.
C. SUBSCRIBE calling search space on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Presence is set incorrectly.
D. The Rerouting and Out-of-Dialog Refer settings are incorrectly set to Default.
Correct Answer: C

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Question No : 1
Which database engine is used in Cisco Unity Connection?
A. PostgreSQL
B. MySQL
C. Informix
D. SQL Server
Answer: C

Question No : 2
Which are the minimum system requirements to install Cisco Unity Connection on a virtual machine.?
A. 1-vCPU, 1-GB vRAM, 80-GB vDisk
B. 2-vCPU, 2-GB vRAM, 160-GB vDisk
C. 4-vCPU, 2-GB vRAM, 2X146-GB vDisk
Answer: B

Question No : 3
How many phones and mailboxes can be supported with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition?
A. 225 phones, 250 mailboxes
B. 500 phones, 500 mailboxes
C. 700 phones, 750 mailboxes
D. 1250 phones, 1000 mailboxes
Answer: B
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Question No : 4
Which protocol is used to exchange information between VPIM networked voice-mail systems? 642-263 dumps
A. SCCP
B. SIP
C. SNMP
D. SMTP
Answer: D

Question No : 5
Which choice most accurately describes the licensing components for Cisco Unity Connection?
A. Users with mailboxes, users with IMAP access to voice message, SpeechView users
B. Port licensing for phone system integration, Unified Messaging
C. End-user licensing based on the number of users for voice mail, IMAP access to voice mail, voice recognition, Cisco Unity Inbox, LDAP, and email TTS
D. Port licensing and VPIM licensing
Answer: A

Question No : 6
Which two options represent call transfer methods available in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose two.)
A. switch transfer with supervision
B. release to switch
C. supervised transfer
D. unsupervised transfer
Answer : B,C

Question No : 7
Which component is required for the COBRAS import tool for Cisco Unity Connection v7.0 and higher?
A. Informix ODBC drivers
B. JRE 1.5.0_06
C. Microsoft Access
Answer : A

Question No : 8
Which three methods or protocols are used to provide integrated messaging services for voice-mail clients? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. IMAP
C. SMTP
D. WebDAV
E. SCCP
F. HTTPS
Answer : B,D,F

Question No : 9
Which two types of modifications can be made by the Cisco Unity Connection Bulk Edit utility? (Choose two.)
A. groups of users based on search criteria
B. global settings for all users
C. call handler settings based on search criteria
D. change web passwords for all users
Answer : A,C

Question No : 10
Which option controls call screening and holding options in Cisco Unity Connection?
A. class of service
B. user templates
C. call handler templates
D. interview handlers
Answer : A

Question No : 11
Which call handling element initiates the call flow through Cisco 642-263 dumps Unity Connection?
A. call routing tables
B. system call handlers
C. directory handlers
D. interview handlers
Answer : A

Question No : 12
Which technique is used by the second node to synchronize the system clock?
A. NTP to an external NTP server
B. NTP to the first node in the cluster
C. None; clock settings are entered during installation
D. None; second node does not require clock synchronization
Answer : B

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QUESTION 1
Which database engine is used in Cisco Unity Connection?
A. PostgreSQL
B. MySQL
C. Informix
D. SQL Server
Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum number of supported ports for a single-server implementation using Platform Overlay 2?
A. 16
B. 48
C. 96
D. 144
Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are the minimum system requirements to install Cisco Unity Connection?
A. 1-GHz processor, 1-GB RAM, 80-GB hard disk
B. 2-GHz processor, 2-GB RAM, 80-GB hard disk
C. 2-GHz processor, 2-GB RAM, 160-GB hard disk
D. 3-GHz processor, 4-GB RAM, 160-GB hard disk
Answer: B
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QUESTION 4                            642-262 dumps
How many phones and mailboxes may be supported with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition?
A. 225 phones, 250 mailboxes
B. 575 phones, 500 mailboxes
C. 700 phones, 750 mailboxes
D. 1250 phones, 1000 mailboxes
Answer: B

QUESTION 5
How many standalone Cisco Unity Connection servers can be digitally networked to provide a larger voice-mail deployment?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum number of voice-mail subscribers that can be deployed in a Cisco Unity Connection digitally networked solution?
A. 10,000
B. 35,000
C. 50,000
D. 75,000
Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What is the maximum number of integrated messaging subscribers that can be deployed in a Cisco Unity Connection digitally networked solution?
A. 10,000
B. 35,000
C. 50,000
D. 75,000
Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which protocol is used to exchange information between VPIM networked voice-mail systems?
A. SCCP
B. SIP
C. SNMP
D. SMTP
Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two of these methods can be used to integrate Cisco 642-262 dumps Unity Connection to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. SIP
B. PIMG
C. SCCP
D. TIMG
Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which choice most accurately describes the licensing components for Cisco Unity Connection?
A. port licensing for phone system integration; seat licensing for voice mail, integrated messaging services, and VPIM licensing
B. port licensing for phone system integration
C. end-user licensing based on the number of users for voice mail, IMAP access to voice mail, voice recognition, Cisco Unity Inbox, and email TTS
D. port licensing and VPIM licensing
Answer: A

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